My confusion in slavery in islam

[Zafran]

No amount of Muslim countries can repeal a law of the Qur'aan.

If, hypothetically, all the Muslim countries in the world come together and ban Salaah, does that mean Muslims must stop performing Salaah? According to your logic, they should, because "What about all the Muslim countries who have banned it? Don't they count?"

what? are you saying the salah (a pillar of Islam/shariah) is as important as slavery (a non pillar of Islam/shariah) ? - Frankly The verses of Quran about "right hand possess" seem to be giving some sort of order about how to treat women slaves in a society that didnt value women (pre pagan Arabs) - especially after war - as Search said a practical solution. The countless avenues of freeing slaves in Islam which are highly encouraged/ slow abolition of slavery.

Lets not forget the countless scholars of Islam that have supported the ban on slavery. From Al Azher, to the deoband to the salafis etc etc -

 

[Karl]

what? so banning slavery is a "Kuffar" rule??

Of course, the British Empire banned slavery and that power and influence was immense as they ruled most of the world and now their spawn the US empire exerts its immense power and influence.

 

[Zafran]

Of course, the British Empire banned slavery and that power and influence was immense as they ruled most of the world and now their spawn the US empire exerts its immense power and influence.

So slavery was a good thing and we should have kept it? most of the Muslim institutions in the world from different parts of the world with different schools of thought agree that slavery should be banned - are they being controlled by the US?

 

[islamirama]

I sure do miss the old crew. Members were more informed on Islam back then and were also willing to do a little research before posting willy nilly without understanding the seriousness of their actions. Whatever you say is written down and you will be held accountable for on J-day.

with that said. Here are the answers you were looking for OP




What is the ruling on intimacy with slave women?

Allaah has permitted it. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“And those who guard their chastity (i.e. private parts, from illegal sexual acts)

6. Except from their wives or (the slaves) that their right hands possess, for then, they are free from blame”

[al-Mu’minoon 23:6; al-Ma’aarij 70:30]

If a slave becomes a Muslim after , his right to be freed from slavery because of his Islam is superceded by the right of the mujaahid whose right to enslave him took effect before he was a Muslim.

More on all this at: https://islamqa.info/en/13737

-----------------

What is a “right hand servant”? Does the owner of a “right hand servant” have to be married?


If Allaah enables the Muslim mujahideen to defeat kaafir enemies in war, then the men may be killed, ransomed, set free without ransom or enslaved. The choice between these four options is to be made by the ruler, according to what he thinks is the best course.

With regard to the women, they become slaves and “those whom one's right hand possesses” (described as a “right hand servant” in the question). Male children also become slaves. The ruler shares out these slaves among the mujaahideen.

Islam limited the sources of slaves which existed before the mission of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) to just one source, namely slavery resulting from capturing prisoners from among the kuffaar.

Islam treated female slaves more kindly in their enslavement than other cultures did. Their honour was not considered to be permissible to anyone by way of prostitution, which was the fate of female prisoners of war in most cases. Rather Islam made them the property of their masters alone, and forbade anyone else to also have intercourse with them, even if that was his son. Islam made it their right to become free through a contract of manumission; it encouraged setting them free and promised reward for that. Islam made setting slaves free an obligation in the case of some kinds of expiation (kafaarah), such as the expiation for accidental killing, zihaar (a jaahili form of divorce in which a man said to his wife, “You are to me as my mother’s back”), and breaking oaths. They received the best treatment from their masters, as was enjoined by the pure sharee’ah.

Secondly:

A mujaahid does not have to be married in order to gain possession of a “slave whom one’s right hand possesses.” None of the scholars expressed such a view.

Thirdly:

If a mujaahid takes possession of a female slave or male slave, it is permissible for him to sell them. In either case – whether one acquires a slave through battle or through purchase – it is not permissible for a man to have intercourse with a female slave until she has had a period from which it may be ascertained that she is not pregnant. If she is pregnant then he must wait until she gives birth.


For many reasons, including the fact that the Muslims have long since given up jihad, slavery is now very rare. This means that the Muslims must be extra cautious by examining any case in which it is claimed that someone is a slave, whether male or female.


Full answer at : https://islamqa.info/en/12562


------------------------------------------

Intercourse with a slave woman is not regarded as zina (adultery)


Allaah has permitted intimacy with a slave woman if the man owns her. This is not regarded as adultery as suggested in the question. Allaah says, describing the believers (interpretation of the meaning):

“those who guard their chastity (i.e. private parts, from illegal sexual acts)

Except from their wives or (the slaves) that their right hands possess,__ for then, they are free from blame”

[al-Mu’minoon 23:5]


source: https://islamqa.info/en/20802

------------------

Does a slave woman become free if her master marries her?.

The scholars are unanimously agreed that it is not permissible for the master to marry his slave woman, because the contract of ownership is stronger than the contract of marriage, and it contains all the same conditions as the marriage contract and more. It is permissible for him to marry the slave woman of another man if the conditions of that are fulfilled

more at https://islamqa.info/en/128160

-------------------------------------------


Islam and slavery


Slaves in Islam were better treated then free people in kuffar lands. Y

Read more about it here: https://islamqa.info/en/94840

 

[Zafran]

I sure do miss the old crew. Members were more informed on Islam back then and were also willing to do a little research before posting willy nilly without understanding the seriousness of their actions. Whatever you say is written down and you will be held accountable for on J-day.

with that said. Here are the answers you were looking for OP




What is the ruling on intimacy with slave women?

Allaah has permitted it. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“And those who guard their chastity (i.e. private parts, from illegal sexual acts)

6. Except from their wives or (the slaves) that their right hands possess, for then, they are free from blame”

[al-Mu’minoon 23:6; al-Ma’aarij 70:30]

If a slave becomes a Muslim after , his right to be freed from slavery because of his Islam is superceded by the right of the mujaahid whose right to enslave him took effect before he was a Muslim.

More on all this at: https://islamqa.info/en/13737

-----------------

What is a “right hand servant”? Does the owner of a “right hand servant” have to be married?


If Allaah enables the Muslim mujahideen to defeat kaafir enemies in war, then the men may be killed, ransomed, set free without ransom or enslaved. The choice between these four options is to be made by the ruler, according to what he thinks is the best course.

With regard to the women, they become slaves and “those whom one's right hand possesses” (described as a “right hand servant” in the question). Male children also become slaves. The ruler shares out these slaves among the mujaahideen.

Islam limited the sources of slaves which existed before the mission of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) to just one source, namely slavery resulting from capturing prisoners from among the kuffaar.

Islam treated female slaves more kindly in their enslavement than other cultures did. Their honour was not considered to be permissible to anyone by way of prostitution, which was the fate of female prisoners of war in most cases. Rather Islam made them the property of their masters alone, and forbade anyone else to also have intercourse with them, even if that was his son. Islam made it their right to become free through a contract of manumission; it encouraged setting them free and promised reward for that. Islam made setting slaves free an obligation in the case of some kinds of expiation (kafaarah), such as the expiation for accidental killing, zihaar (a jaahili form of divorce in which a man said to his wife, “You are to me as my mother’s back”), and breaking oaths. They received the best treatment from their masters, as was enjoined by the pure sharee’ah.

Secondly:

A mujaahid does not have to be married in order to gain possession of a “slave whom one’s right hand possesses.” None of the scholars expressed such a view.

Thirdly:

If a mujaahid takes possession of a female slave or male slave, it is permissible for him to sell them. In either case – whether one acquires a slave through battle or through purchase – it is not permissible for a man to have intercourse with a female slave until she has had a period from which it may be ascertained that she is not pregnant. If she is pregnant then he must wait until she gives birth.


For many reasons, including the fact that the Muslims have long since given up jihad, slavery is now very rare. This means that the Muslims must be extra cautious by examining any case in which it is claimed that someone is a slave, whether male or female.


Full answer at : https://islamqa.info/en/12562


------------------------------------------

Intercourse with a slave woman is not regarded as zina (adultery)


Allaah has permitted intimacy with a slave woman if the man owns her. This is not regarded as adultery as suggested in the question. Allaah says, describing the believers (interpretation of the meaning):

“those who guard their chastity (i.e. private parts, from illegal sexual acts)

Except from their wives or (the slaves) that their right hands possess,__ for then, they are free from blame”

[al-Mu’minoon 23:5]


source: https://islamqa.info/en/20802

------------------

Does a slave woman become free if her master marries her?.

The scholars are unanimously agreed that it is not permissible for the master to marry his slave woman, because the contract of ownership is stronger than the contract of marriage, and it contains all the same conditions as the marriage contract and more. It is permissible for him to marry the slave woman of another man if the conditions of that are fulfilled

more at https://islamqa.info/en/128160

-------------------------------------------


Islam and slavery


Slaves in Islam were better treated then free people in kuffar lands. Y

Read more about it here: https://islamqa.info/en/94840

Googling IslamQA isnt research.

 

[islamirama]

Googling IslamQA isnt research.

providing answers with dhaleel is research.

And yes it is, here's a definition for you:

- careful and organized study or gathering of information about a specific topic.

 

[Zafran]

providing answers with dhaleel is research.

And yes it is, here's a definition for you:

- careful and organized study or gathering of information about a specific topic.

you did non - you just posted Islam Q and A answers - You could have just told people to ask sheikh google, which of course leaves out many unanswered questions - you know the hard ones that Islam Qand A cant answer or will not answer.

 

[talibilm]

That which you mentioned, sister, about Hadhrat `Umar رضي الله عنه abolishing slavery: It's something we've always heard, but for some time now I've been trying to find the source of that narration in any of our reliable Kitaabs of Islaamic history, and have not as yet come across it. I know that certain `Ulamaa from the Indo-Pak subcontinent like Maulana Shibli Nu`mani has mentioned it, but we need the find the actual source of this claim, which of the Mu'arrikheen (historians of Islaam) have narrated it, etc.

Bro

May be it was this

Umar on Freedom: When you did you enslave people although they are born free?

Abu Amina Elias • July 18, 2012
Ibn Abd Al-Hakim reported: Anas, may Allah be pleased with him, said that a man from the people of Egypt came to Umar ibn Al-Khattab and said, “O leader of the believers, I seek refuge in you from injustice!” Umar replied, “You have sought someone willing.” The man said, “I competed with the son of Amr ibn Al-‘As and I won, but he started striking me with a whip and saying: I am the son of the dignified!” Upon this, Umar wrote to Amr ordering him to travel to him with his son. He came with his son and Umar said, “Where is the Egyptian?” He gave him the whip and told him to strike the son of Amr. The man started striking him while Umar was saying, “Strike the son of the illiterates!” Anas said, “By Allah, the man struck him and we loved his striking, and he did not stop until we wished he stopped.” Then Umar said to the Egyptian, “Direct it to Amr.” The Egyptian said, “O leader of the believers, it was only his son who struck me and I have settled the score.” Umar said to Amr, “Since when did you enslave the people though they were born from their mothers in freedom?” Amr said, “O leader of the believers, I did not know about this and he did not tell me.”

Source: Futuh Masr 290

وأخرج ابن عبد الحكم عن أنس رضي الله عنه أن رجلاً من أهل مصر أتى عمر بن الخطاب رضي الله عنه فقال يا أمير المؤمنين عائذ بك من الظلم قال عذتَ معَاذاً قال سابقت ابن عمرو بن العاص فسبقته فحعل يضربني بالسوط ويقول أنا ابن الأكرمين فكتب عمر إلى عمرو رضي الله عنهما يأمره بالقدوم ويقدَم بابنه معه فقدم فقال عمر أين المصري؟ خذ السوط ضرب فجعل يضربه بالسوط ويقول عمر إضرب ابن الألأمَينْ قال أنس فضرب والله لقد ضربه ونحن نحب ضربه؛ فلما أقلع عنه حتى تمنينا أنه يرفع عنه ثم قال للمصري ضَعْ على صلعة عمرو فقال يا أمير المؤمنين إِنّما ابنه الذي ضربني وقد استَقَدْت منه فقال عمر لعمرو مذ كم تعبدتم الناس وقد ولدتهم أمهاتهم أحراراً؟ قال يا أمير المؤمنين لم أعلم ولم يأتني. كذا في منتخب كنز العمال​

290 ابن عبدالحكم في فتوح مصر​

Its Said the United Nations charter had borrowed this statement of Umar R.A. and its still being used while mentioning slavery

 

[Love_Sahabah]

Remember that prophet Muhammad PBUH came at a time of widespread slavery.
Quran also mentions freeing slaves as good deeds. How come we never talk about that?




Did we not show him the two paths? He should choose the difficult path. Which one is the difficult path? The freeing of slaves. Feeding, during the time of hardship... [90:10-14]



Freeing slaves is called righteousness.

Righteousness is not turning your faces towards the east or the west. Righteous are those who believe in God, the Last Day, the angels, the scripture, and the prophets; and they give the money, cheerfully, to the relatives, the orphans, the needy, the traveller, the beggars, and to free the slaves... [2:177]

 

[Huzaifah ibn Adam]

Umar on Freedom: When you did you enslave people although they are born free?

Abu Amina Elias • July 18, 2012
Ibn Abd Al-Hakim reported: Anas, may Allah be pleased with him, said that a man from the people of Egypt came to Umar ibn Al-Khattab and said, “O leader of the believers, I seek refuge in you from injustice!” Umar replied, “You have sought someone willing.” The man said, “I competed with the son of Amr ibn Al-‘As and I won, but he started striking me with a whip and saying: I am the son of the dignified!” Upon this, Umar wrote to Amr ordering him to travel to him with his son. He came with his son and Umar said, “Where is the Egyptian?” He gave him the whip and told him to strike the son of Amr. The man started striking him while Umar was saying, “Strike the son of the illiterates!” Anas said, “By Allah, the man struck him and we loved his striking, and he did not stop until we wished he stopped.” Then Umar said to the Egyptian, “Direct it to Amr.” The Egyptian said, “O leader of the believers, it was only his son who struck me and I have settled the score.” Umar said to Amr, “Since when did you enslave the people though they were born from their mothers in freedom?” Amr said, “O leader of the believers, I did not know about this and he did not tell me.”

No, in that narration, Hadhrat `Umar رضي الله عنه is speaking about children born from a woman who is a slave; that according to him, those children are born free and are not slaves. That is what the narration is speaking about. It is not speaking about abolishing slavery.

In fact, it's funny people should mention that he abolished slavery. Why do I say so? Very simple:

Who killed Hadhrat `Umar ibn al-Khattaab رضي الله عنه?

Abu Lu'lu al-Majoosi.

What was Abu Lu'lu? A Persian slave.

If Hadhrat `Umar رضي الله عنه had abolished slavery, how did he get killed by a slave? There should have been no slaves left, isn't it? And Hadhrat `Umar رضي الله عنه knew this particular slave very well.

 

[Search]

:bism: (In the Name of God, the Most Beneficent, the Most Merciful)

(Peace be upon you)

Yes, that is true. And to find out why, I suggest you read my original lengthy post on this thread itself.

Caliph Umar :ra: was killed by a Persian slave. That is because he'd abolished slavery before the Persian Empire fell, but when the Persian Empire fell, this repeal of slavery could not be sustained.

Btw, I'm not sure why you haven't found any narrations of Umar :ra: repealing slavery in Arabia, because this is a well-known historical fact that I've read in almost all history books.

No, in that narration, Hadhrat `Umar رضي الله عنه is speaking about children born from a woman who is a slave; that according to him, those children are born free and are not slaves. That is what the narration is speaking about. It is not speaking about abolishing slavery.

In fact, it's funny people should mention that he abolished slavery. Why do I say so? Very simple:

Who killed Hadhrat `Umar ibn al-Khattaab رضي الله عنه?

Abu Lu'lu al-Majoosi.

What was Abu Lu'lu? A Persian slave.

If Hadhrat `Umar رضي الله عنه had abolished slavery, how did he get killed by a slave? There should have been no slaves left, isn't it? And Hadhrat `Umar رضي الله عنه knew this particular slave very well.

:wa: (And peace be upon you)

 

[Huzaifah ibn Adam]

What I mean by our Kitaabs of Taareekh (history) are books such as Tabaqaat al-Kubraa of Imaam ibn Sa`d, al-Kaamil fit-Taareekh of Imaam ibn al-Atheer, al-Bidaayah wan-Nihaayah of Imaam ibn Katheer, Siyar A`laam an-Nubalaa of Imaam adh-Dhahabi, Taareekh-ul-Khulafaa of Imaam as-Suyooti, Asd-ul-Ghaabah fee Ma`rifat-is-Sahaabah, al-Isaabah fee Tamyeez-is-Sahaabah, Futooh-ush-Shaam, Futooh-ul-Misr, Futooh-ul-`Iraaq, etc. I have not as yet found it in any of the Kitaabs mentioned here, which are the canonical works of Islaamic history. If someone can show me the narration from any of these canonical Kitaabs of ours (the original books of Islaamic history), that will be very appreciated, In Shaa Allaah.

 

[Serinity]

I have a question:

if Islam came to abolish slavery, why didn't Allah do so? (from what I understand)

There was also one time where I read that the Prophet :saw: bought a slave and released/freed the slave immediately. So what is it?
And Allah :swt: knows best.

 

[Al Sultan]

Okay thanks for explaining but I do have some questions...

1) what happens if she gets pregnant without them getting married?
2) What if the man wants to marry her but he's already got 4 wives? Can he still have intercourse with her even though he's got 4 wives?
3) what if he never wants to marry her but wants to keep her as a slave forever and have intercourse
(with her permission)

 

[Search]

:bism: (In the Name of God, the Most Beneficent, the Most Merciful)

(Peace be upon you)

Please both of you read post #39, as InshaAllah (God-willing) it should answer some basic questions. Jazkamullahu khair.

Okay thanks for explaining but I do have some questions...

1) what happens if she gets pregnant without them getting married?
2) What if the man wants to marry her but he's already got 4 wives? Can he still have intercourse with her even though he's got 4 wives?
3) what if he never wants to marry her but wants to keep her as a slave forever and have intercourse
(with her permission)

I have a question:

if Islam came to abolish slavery, why didn't Allah do so? (from what I understand)

There was also one time where I read that the Prophet :saw: bought a slave and released/freed the slave immediately. So what is it?
And Allah :swt: knows best.

:wa: (And peace be upon you)

 

[Huzaifah ibn Adam]

Okay thanks for explaining but I do have some questions...

1) what happens if she gets pregnant without them getting married?
2) What if the man wants to marry her but he's already got 4 wives? Can he still have intercourse with her even though he's got 4 wives?
3) what if he never wants to marry her but wants to keep her as a slave forever and have intercourse
(with her permission)

1) The moment she gives birth, she becomes what is known as an "Umm Walad", and gets her freedom the moment he (the one whom she is the Jaariyah of) dies. She can also get her freedom before then by purchasing it from him.

2) If he has four wives, he can't marry her. He can still have intercourse with her, though.

3) He can do so.

والله تعالى أعلم​

 

[Al Sultan]

Do you have any evidences,or hadiths? to prove this?

 

[talibilm]

I have a question:

if Islam came to abolish slavery, why didn't Allah do so? (from what I understand)

There was also one time where I read that the Prophet :saw: bought a slave and released/freed the slave immediately. So what is it?
And Allah :swt: knows best.

This question is better answered by Bilaal radhiyallahu anhu, one of the earliest Muslims and Slave but was HONOURED to be the first and chief Mu'azzin of the Holy Prophet sallallahu alayhi wasallam presents the issue of slavery thus:


Bilaal radhiyallahu anhu was once asked why was slavery not banned in Islaam? Bilaal radhiyallahu anhu answered: 'The world is now based on the labour of the slaves. Should Islaam or any other system have sought to stop the institute of slavery all at once it would lead to universal anarchy and disturbance in which both masters and slaves would suffer. The masters' loss is clear, and as for the slaves they would find themselves without anyone to take care of their needs, unaccustomed to independence and self reliance ( my Opinion: like tamed animals all of a sudden left in a wild forest, it said they die easily there ) they would in most cases seek to satisfy their needs through criminal assaults and extortions. Crimes of all sorts would spread widely, society would suffer incurably and there would be no more peace or security.'


'To help the slaves' Bilaal radhiyallahu anhu continued, 'Islaam has done what no other system or religion has done or could do. The Tawraat enjoined slavery and Christianity was silent about it. But Islaam has left no choice except that it urged the emancipation of slaves. It promises great rewards for emancipating a slave, and makes this emancipation one of the foremost duties incumbent upon a believer as a manifestation of his gratitude for the blessing of Allah'.


Bilaal radhiyallahu anhu added: 'Islaam does not deny a freed slave any high responsible position'. He quoted Zayd Ibne Haarithah who was installed by the Holy Prophet sallallahu alayhi wasallam commander of an army. His son Usaamah was granted the same distinction. Again the Holy Prophet's own female cousin was married to Zayd who was a freed man. Islaam broke the tribal pride and has fostered true human equality.


Freeing of slaves was almost mandatory. A Hadeeth shows:


Zazaan reported that Ibne Umar called his slave and he found the marks (of beating) upon his back. He said to him, I have caused you pain. He said, no. But Ibne Umar said, you are free. He then took hold of something from the earth and said, there is no reward for me even to the weight equal to this. I heard Allah's Messenger sallallahu alayhi wasallam saying, He who beats a slave without recognizable offence of his or slaps him then expiation for it is that he should set him free.


The manumission of slaves was our Prophet's sallalahu alaihi wasallam final goal and he chose many a wise ways to achieve this as we have already read. The Prophet's sallallahu alayhi wasallam final sermon was a great charter of liberty...... 'As to your slaves, male and female feed them with what you eat yourself and clothe them with what you wear. If you cannot keep them or they commit any fault, discharge them. They are Allah's people like the rest of you and be kind to them'.


Surely the Holy Qur'aan and Ahaadeeth are a glow and radiant in its wise ways for the understanding man.


Riyaadhul Jannah
Volume: 2/Issue: 5

 

[aaj]

Do you have any evidences,or hadiths? to prove this?

You questions have been answered and evidence provided by several members. Whats with the obsession? There are no conditions that exist today that would allow you to have slaves. What ISIS is preaching is all unislamic and incorrect.

 

[Al Sultan]

no I am not listening to ISIS ---- are you talking about? I was just making sure