Iddat of divorced woman

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فصيح الياسين

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Assalamoalikum
Question to only our salafi./ahle hadeeth/ghair muqalid brothers. What is the exact idat of divorced intercoursed woman? Describe briefly
 
“Divorced women shall wait by themselves for three clean periods.” (Al-Baqara 2:228)
 
Assalamu Alaikum

If the woman is not pregnant and she menstruates (is of child-bearing age), then her ‘iddah is three complete menstrual cycles after the divorce, i.e., her period comes then she becomes pure, then her period comes again and she becomes pure, then her period comes again and she becomes pure. That is three complete menstrual cycles, regardless of whether the time between them is long or short. Based on this, if he divorces her and she is breastfeeding and does not menstruate until two years later, then she remains in ‘iddah until she has had three menstrual cycles, so she may stay in this state for two years or more. The point is that she should go through three complete menstrual cycles whether the time involved is long or short, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“And divorced women shall wait (as regards their marriage) for three menstrual periods”

[al-Baqarah 2:228]​


Source
 
*charisma* said:
Assalamu Alaikum

If the woman is not pregnant and she menstruates (is of child-bearing age), then her ‘iddah is three complete menstrual cycles after the divorce, i.e., her period comes then she becomes pure, then her period comes again and she becomes pure, then her period comes again and she becomes pure. That is three complete menstrual cycles, regardless of whether the time between them is long or short. Based on this, if he divorces her and she is breastfeeding and does not menstruate until two years later, then she remains in ‘iddah until she has had three menstrual cycles, so she may stay in this state for two years or more. The point is that she should go through three complete menstrual cycles whether the time involved is long or short, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“And divorced women shall wait (as regards their marriage) for three menstrual periods”

[al-Baqarah 2:228]​
Source
Click to expand...
القرء have two meanings why we chose menstrual than cleaniness.
If we choose both its wrong. If we choose one so need hadeeth..
 
The verse u choose is المطلقات يتربصن بثلاثة قروؤ
So i asked quro have two meanings one period and second cleaniness.
I asked why people choose period meaning instead of cleaniness meaning.
Cuz one u choose meaning eather said by allah or propher or other people derived by qiyas method. And we take quran and hadeeth. So kindly tell why took period meaning
Hope now my question is clear
 
فصيح الياسين said:
القرء have two meanings why we chose menstrual than cleaniness.
If we choose both its wrong. If we choose one so need hadeeth..
Click to expand...

Choosing both is not necessarily wrong because it was thought out by the different mathabs, which is legitimate.

They came to their conclusions based on their specific understanding, which is of a very high standard.
 
Last edited:
فصيح الياسين said:
The verse u choose is المطلقات يتربصن بثلاثة قروؤ
So i asked quro have two meanings one period and second cleaniness.
I asked why people choose period meaning instead of cleaniness meaning.
Cuz one u choose meaning eather said by allah or propher or other people derived by qiyas method. And we take quran and hadeeth. So kindly tell why took period meaning
Hope now my question is clear
Click to expand...

Still not sure what you're asking but Qiyas is perfectly acceptable in Islam and you cannot reject it. I'm a bit surprised that you're even suggesting this as you have asked a Salafi to answer your question - not that it's even relevant.

If you're asking which of the two meanings we are choosing then you've already answered your own question. The iddat of a divorce woman by talaq is three menstrual cycles i.e. period starts then ends (i.e. becoming 'clean' or pure) is one cycle. When this happens three times the iddat is over.
 
Umm Abed said:
Choosing both is not necessarily wrong because it was thought out by the different mathabs, which is legitimate.

They came to their conclusions based on their specific understanding, which is of a very high standard.
Click to expand...
العموم المشترك لا يجوز عند احناف خلافا شوافعي إلا انهم غيرضدين .الطهر والحيض ضد لأحد فلا عموم مشترك فيه
 
'Abd-al Latif said:
Still not sure what you're asking but Qiyas is perfectly acceptable in Islam and you cannot reject it. I'm a bit surprised that you're even suggesting this as you have asked a Salafi to answer your question - not that it's even relevant.

If you're asking which of the two meanings we are choosing then you've already answered your own question. The iddat of a divorce woman by talaq is three menstrual cycles i.e. period starts then ends (i.e. becoming 'clean' or pure) is one cycle. When this happens three times the iddat is over.
Click to expand...
I knw bro wht madahib said about it alhumdulillah but i asked from those who do not follow madhab and also qiyas and ijma is not acceptable according to non madhab persons as we heard and read
and this would turn my topic to other thing
 

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