Greetings. I know I am showing my lack of knowledge on this subject, but I really would like to know the Muslim perspective on a couple of questions I have had for a long time.
Mohammad and the Koran came to us around 622AD. This is almost 300 years after the council at Nicea.
If I am not mistaken, the Koran instructs Muslims to read the books of God and calls them the word of God, light and guidance, and illumination.
I think I am correct in assuming Muslims believe the scriptures were corrupted before the council of Nicea.
1. Why would the revelation given to Mohammad instruct Muslims to pay any attention to these texts, and even refer to them so highly, if they have been corrupted for hundreds of years at the time the Koran was written?
2. If the Koran instructs Muslims to read the books of God, why is the Bible illegal in some Muslim countries?
Thank you.
Mohammad and the Koran came to us around 622AD. This is almost 300 years after the council at Nicea.
If I am not mistaken, the Koran instructs Muslims to read the books of God and calls them the word of God, light and guidance, and illumination.
I think I am correct in assuming Muslims believe the scriptures were corrupted before the council of Nicea.
1. Why would the revelation given to Mohammad instruct Muslims to pay any attention to these texts, and even refer to them so highly, if they have been corrupted for hundreds of years at the time the Koran was written?
2. If the Koran instructs Muslims to read the books of God, why is the Bible illegal in some Muslim countries?
Thank you.