Assalam-u-alaikum
I need the opinion of educated muslims here.
I accidently came across an article by some Imam Khaleel Mohammad . I am not going to post the link here b/c it represents islam wrongly. But will quote this guy here.
Now, I never read this version of this ayah. Also, I have researched this Imam and he belongs to the freemuslims.org organization which is not quite islamic. they are even against the islamic sharia. So I know I can't believe what this guy says. But, let's say a non-muslim comes up to me and gives me this article and asks me to negate it. How will I do so?
1-How do I negate the notion that this Ayah applies equally to men and women as this Imam suggested?
2-How do I negate the notion that having a prenuptial agreement that says the muslim woman's beliefs will be fully respected, would make the marriage of the muslim woman to a Jew/Christian man halal?
3-Is there any hadith specifically mentioning that its not allowed for the muslim women to be married to the Christian/Jew men?
Now, if someone says that she might be forced to change her beliefs and such, then how can be one sure that a muslim man will not force his Christian/Jew wife to change her belief. In fact, i saw some videos on youtube that showed that certain middle east muslim men did forcefully had their wives converting to islam. i think this was terribly wrong. So, now the question arises, why do we have this ruling that allows muslim men to marry Christian/Jew women, which obviously creates a loop for victimization of non-muslim women by corrupt muslim men? I am not saying that a good muslim man would force his wife, i am only saying bad muslim men who don't practise islam properly. Perhaps we are only looking at some part of this ruling and not all of it. Perhaps being a fully practising muslim is a prerequisite for this. What do you think?
Now, I already discussed with a muslim brother I know. Alhamdulillah, he gave me some Quranic verses.
He told me this Quranic verse.
"if a woman accepts Islam, and her husband doesn't, than she is not to be returned to him. then if you ascertain that they are true believers send them not back to the disbelievers. They are not lawful (wives) for the disbelievers nor are the disbelievers lawful (husbands) for them” [al-Mumtahanah 60:10]
But it says here "believers". Are Christians/Jews considered believers or non-believers? What is the exact arabic word here for which the translation of a believer is used? Would someone explain the context of this verse to me.
I would so appreciate a really good response based on Quran and Sunnah. Make sure to be very detailed with regards to Arabic terminology and its meaning inshaAllah.
Kind Regards
Assalam-u-alaikum
I need the opinion of educated muslims here.
I accidently came across an article by some Imam Khaleel Mohammad . I am not going to post the link here b/c it represents islam wrongly. But will quote this guy here.
"The verse that is traditionally used by imams to prohibit an inter-religious marriage is Qur'an 5:5, which states: 'This day, all innately good things are lawful for you... Lawful to you are the chaste women from among those who have been given the Book before you...' Traditional imams contend that since women are mentioned, and men are not, then it must be understood that the marriage of Muslim women with non-Muslim men is forbidden.
This, however, is problematic. For the Qur'an is addressed, because of the custom of the time, to men. It is for this reason that the Qur'an says, for example, "And when you divorce your wives..." or "During the nights of fasting [Ramadan] you may have sex with your wives..." What do I mean by the custom of the time? In the tribal context, the woman, once married, accepted the husband as master. He, in turn, accepted the religion of his tribal chief.
Given that reality, a whole host of issues arose for Muslim scholars -- issues that made them oppose inter-religious marriages for women. One issue was, whereas Muslims honor the non-Muslim prophets, followers of the other two monotheistic religions do not honor Muhammad, and that would put the Muslim woman in the terrible position of having her prophet disrespected. Another issue was that most Christians see Jesus as God, and for a Muslim to attribute divinity to a human in unthinkable. Then, too, there was the problem of the children from such a marriage, who would presumably be brought up in the religion of the male spouseTo be sure, most Muslims would argue that the Qur'an is true for all time and all places. If we go by that logic, then we must acknowledge that the Qur'an is still sympathetic to your dream of marrying a Christian man. Even though he is a Christian, the Qur'an does not hold that against him. For while mentioning that there are Christians who take Jesus as God, Islam's main document calls this 'kufr' (disbelief/ingratitude) rather than 'shirk' (polytheism). It's a significant distinction because, in another verse, the Qur'an also states that Christians who do good deeds have the right to enter heaven. Christian creedal beliefs are the same for both male and female followers of Christianity, so how can the Qur'an allow marriage to the Christian woman but not to the Christian man?The evidence indicates that the main hang-up is the problem I emphasized above -- that the religion of the male spouse becomes dominant (as also evidenced in the Book of Ruth in the Hebrew Bible). In our day, since Qur'anic Islam (as opposed to the Islam of the male jurists) must acknowledge the radical notion that women are equals of men, that women have legal rights, and that those rights include placing conditions on the marriage (what you and I would term a 'pre-nuptial agreement'), then an inter-faith marriage can take place on condition that neither spouse will be forcibly converted to the other's religion. As long as that condition is respected, you and she have my blessing.
On the question of children, certainly there will be some religious confusion. But as a Muslim scholar, I can tell you that the Qur'an advocates the use of the heart and mind in forming opinions. If both parents are faithful to their interpretations of the Creator's will, then the children will make informed decisions when they come of age.
Now, I never read this version of this ayah. Also, I have researched this Imam and he belongs to the freemuslims.org organization which is not quite islamic. they are even against the islamic sharia. So I know I can't believe what this guy says. But, let's say a non-muslim comes up to me and gives me this article and asks me to negate it. How will I do so?
1-How do I negate the notion that this Ayah applies equally to men and women as this Imam suggested?
2-How do I negate the notion that having a prenuptial agreement that says the muslim woman's beliefs will be fully respected, would make the marriage of the muslim woman to a Jew/Christian man halal?
3-Is there any hadith specifically mentioning that its not allowed for the muslim women to be married to the Christian/Jew men?
Now, if someone says that she might be forced to change her beliefs and such, then how can be one sure that a muslim man will not force his Christian/Jew wife to change her belief. In fact, i saw some videos on youtube that showed that certain middle east muslim men did forcefully had their wives converting to islam. i think this was terribly wrong. So, now the question arises, why do we have this ruling that allows muslim men to marry Christian/Jew women, which obviously creates a loop for victimization of non-muslim women by corrupt muslim men? I am not saying that a good muslim man would force his wife, i am only saying bad muslim men who don't practise islam properly. Perhaps we are only looking at some part of this ruling and not all of it. Perhaps being a fully practising muslim is a prerequisite for this. What do you think?
Now, I already discussed with a muslim brother I know. Alhamdulillah, he gave me some Quranic verses.
He told me this Quranic verse.
"if a woman accepts Islam, and her husband doesn't, than she is not to be returned to him. then if you ascertain that they are true believers send them not back to the disbelievers. They are not lawful (wives) for the disbelievers nor are the disbelievers lawful (husbands) for them” [al-Mumtahanah 60:10]
But it says here "believers". Are Christians/Jews considered believers or non-believers? What is the exact arabic word here for which the translation of a believer is used? Would someone explain the context of this verse to me.
I would so appreciate a really good response based on Quran and Sunnah. Make sure to be very detailed with regards to Arabic terminology and its meaning inshaAllah.
Kind Regards
Assalam-u-alaikum
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