When was the Bible corrupted?

How about a simple, straight answer. What is the injeel referred to in the koran?

Salaam,

A simple straigt answer..

the Injeel is the book given unto Prophet Jesus as.

the Bible does not have the injil according to Propeht Jesus as,,but according to 4 men,who were inspired.

simple aint it.

Also the Injeeil as is all the book are always written in the Prophet own language.
Thus when we say translation of the Quran is not the Quran,,only the arabic version is refered to as the Quran.
 
Salaam,

A simple straigt answer..

the Injeel is the book given unto Prophet Jesus as.

the Bible does not have the injil according to Propeht Jesus as,,but according to 4 men,who were inspired.

simple aint it.

Also the Injeeil as is all the book are always written in the Prophet own language.
Thus when we say translation of the Quran is not the Quran,,only the arabic version is refered to as the Quran.

Excellent. Thank you.
How about another simple answer?
According to Islam, the Injeel was a physical book and has now disappeared. Correct?
 
Excellent. Thank you.
How about another simple answer?
According to Islam, the Injeel was a physical book and has now disappeared. Correct?

Salaam,

Well,we can assume that there is no "book" of the Injeel as the bible does not contain any gospel according to Propeht Jesus as but gospels according to man inspired by Propeht Jesus.

I would beleive that if there were a physical Book of the teaching of Prophet Jesus we would get a corrupted book like the Torah,Zabur..or what is refered to as the OT.with word of the Propeht mixed with words of historians and corrupters.

So the Injeel was most likely nevver collected in Book form ,and thus people seeking to NOT forget the teaching of Prophet Jesus felt INSPIRED to write about Propeht Jesus teaching..
Thus they are making a biography,,but it is not the Injeel..
 
Excellent. Thank you.
How about another simple answer?
According to Islam, the Injeel was a physical book and has now disappeared. Correct?

Not correct

the Injeel According to Islam is what Jesus has orally preached,and ordered his disciples to preach , to the lost sheep of Israel during his life time....

what was written during his lifetime (no proofs yet for such thing)or after his departure ,is called injeel according to Muslims as long as is in accordance with the basic principles of the Torah and the Quran.....

peace
 
hasent the bible already been changed a few times. I remember hearing it somewhere but im not sure
 
[7.157] Those who follow the Apostle-Prophet, the Ummi, whom they find written down with them in the Taurat and the Injeel (who) enjoins them good and forbids them evil, and makes lawful to them the good things and makes unlawful to them impure things, and removes from them their burden and the shackles which were upon them; so (as for) those who believe in him and honor him and help him, and follow the light which has been sent down with him, these it is that are the successful.

Doesn't the idea of the injeel being oral contradict the above surah?
 
Salaam/peace;




related links :

Has the Bible Been Tampered With?


http://www.islamonline.net/servlet/...h-Ask_Scholar/FatwaE/FatwaE&cid=1119503545430




Scriptures of People of the Book



They argue:

“God asks the People of the Book to follow their Books; this is possible only if the Books are extant. But then the Qur’an says that those books have been changed!”



In fact, neither the Qur’an, nor any knowledgeable Muslim says that the Books of the Jews and Christians do not contain the Truth.


The point is that the Jewish and Christian scribes and priests have added many things to the Book as God’s word on the one hand and on the other, they distort the true message through misinterpretation.




For example see how the Jews misinterpret Jehovah’s promise of the Land of Canaan to the Children of Abraham (Genesis 17): They claim that “the seed” of Abraham in the context refers to the Children of Israel only, and not to the Children of Abraham’s firstborn, Ishmael.




Similarly the Christians introduce into their Book, the pagan idea that Jesus was the only begotten son of God, (begotten not made!) and that he was/is really God Himself!



The Qur’an refers to such distortions of the Holy Book. But this fact does not in any way invalidate the truth that is still remaining in the Books of the Jews and Christians.

And this is specifically ascertained by many verses. Note that the Qur’an gives this meaning when it says:


And when there came to them an apostle from God, confirming what was with them, a party of the people of the Book threw away the Book of God behind their backs, as if [it had been something] they did not know!​


(Al-Baqarah 2:101)​





What some Jews and Christians try to do is to tell the Muslims that their own Book - the Qur’an - certifies the authenticity of the present versions of their books. But the Qur’an says what means:
*{To thee We sent the Scripture in truth, confirming the scripture that came before it, and guarding it in safety: so judge between them by what God hath revealed, and follow not their vain desires, diverging from the Truth that hath come to thee…}*(Al-Ma’idah 5: 48)​
The actual Arabic expression used in the Qur’an, that is translated as “guarding in safety” above is: “muhaiminan”. Abdullah Yusuf Ali, the famous English translator of the Holy Qur’an has this to say about this expression:

“The Arabic word ‘muhaimin’ is very comprehensive in meaning. It means one who safeguards, watches over, stands witness, preserves, and upholds. The Qur’an safeguards ‘the Book’, for it has preserved within it the teachings of all the former Books. It watches over these Books in the sense that it will not let their true teachings be lost. It supports and upholds these Books in the sense that it corroborates the Word of Allah which has remained intact in them


http://www.islamonline.net/servlet/...sh-AAbout_Islam/AskAboutIslamE/AskAboutIslamE
The Revelation of the Bible



http://www.islamonline.net/servlet/...sh-AAbout_Islam/AskAboutIslamE/AskAboutIslamE



Verses for this life & the hereafter




“O people of the Book!

There has come to you Our Messenger, revealing to you much that you used to hide in the Book, and passing over much (that is now unnecessary):

There has come to you from God a (new) light and a perspicuous Book.”

Al Ma’idah: 15
 
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Doesn't the idea of the injeel being oral contradict the above surah?

Good Question

but you didn't read my post well


I defined the injeel with the following:

1-oral teachings

2-what was written either his lifetime (no proofs yet for such thing)or after his departure ,is called injeel according to Muslims as long as is in accordance with the basic principles of the Torah and the Quran.....

the writings of Mark,Matthew,Luke,John have some truth based on true oral traditions ,but most of them based on false hearsy

Do muslims believe 100% of John to be the true Injeel of Jesus?the answer is NO

but

John 1:19-23.
Now this was John's testimony when the Jews of Jerusalem sent priests and Levites to ask him who he was. He did not fail to confess, but confessed freely, "I am not the Christ.
They asked him, "Then who are you? Are you Elijah?"
He said, "I am not."
"Are you the Prophet?"
He answered, "No."


Who is the prophet who is neither Elijah nor the christ which priests and Levites ,aske John about?



and:

The Gospel of Barnabas 97:9-10
The name of "Muhammad" is frequently mentioned verbatim in the Gospel of Barnabas, as in the following quote:

"Jesus answered: `The name of the Messiah is admirable, for God himself gave him the name when he had created his soul, and placed it in a celestial splendour. God said: "Wait Mohammed; for thy sake I will to create paradise, the world, and a great multitude of creatures, whereof I make thee a present, insomuch that whoso bless thee shall be blessed, and whoso shall curse thee shall be accursed. When I shall send thee into the world I shall send thee as my messenger of salvation, and thy word shall be true, insomuch that heaven and earth shall fail, but thy faith shall never fail." Mohammed is his blessed name.' Then the crowd lifted up their voices, saying: `O God, send us thy messenger: O Admirable One, come quickly for the salvation of the world!'"


the previous examples from Canonical and non canonical Gospels could be parts of the true Injeel of Jesus

and the following verse in the light of the previous is proven to be true

Holy Quran (7.157] Those who follow the Apostle-Prophet, the Ummi, whom they find written down with them in the Taurat and the Injeel
 
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Good Question

but you didn't read my post well


I defined the injeel with the following:

1-oral teachings

2-what was written either his lifetime (no proofs yet for such thing)or after his departure ,is called injeel according to Muslims as long as is in accordance with the basic principles of the Torah and the Quran.....

I think you should say, 'is eligable to be called the injeel' not 'is called' as just because someone writes something which agrees with Islam and ascribes it to Jesus does not mean it is truly from Jesus.

So what was retained from his Oral tradition and collected in writing, is part of his Message. The 4 Gospels we have now, might have some of his message in them, and I belive this is why some Muslims hold that you can see prophecies of Muhammad in some of the passages of the Bible, because some of the Oral tradition has arraived into it.

A quick thing, anything which disagrees with Islam found in the Gospels then we know for sure is not the message of Jesus, unless it be some laws which could have been changed. Anything which does agree with Islam, then this has the possability of being from Jesus, but we cannot know for certain.

That's what I understand. And Allah knows best.
 
I think you should say, 'is eligable to be called the injeel' not 'is called' as just because someone writes something which agrees with Islam and ascribes it to Jesus does not mean it is truly from Jesus.

So what was retained from his Oral tradition and collected in writing, is part of his Message. The 4 Gospels we have now, might have some of his message in them, and I belive this is why some Muslims hold that you can see prophecies of Muhammad in some of the passages of the Bible, because some of the Oral tradition has arraived into it.

A quick thing, anything which disagrees with Islam found in the Gospels then we know for sure is not the message of Jesus, unless it be some laws which could have been changed. Anything which does agree with Islam, then this has the possability of being from Jesus, but we cannot know for certain.

That's what I understand. And Allah knows best.

:sl:

Thanx dear brother

you paraphrased what I meant
:thumbs_up

peace
 
I did read the responses well. Each one, word for word, several times.

I have found 12 places in the koran where the word injeel is mentioned. I asked the question because I do not find any reference to an oral injeel or the injeel being a combination of oral and written truth, in the koran.

In ten of those surahs, the taurat and injeel are mentioned together. 3:3, 3:48, 3:65, 5:46, 5:66, 5:68, 5:110, 7:157, 9:111, and 48:29.

5:47 talks about the followers of the injeel
57:27 talks about we giving to Isa the son of Miriam the injeel.
 
I did read the responses well. Each one, word for word, several times.

I have found 12 places in the koran where the word injeel is mentioned. I asked the question because I do not find any reference to an oral injeel or the injeel being a combination of oral and written truth, in the koran.

In ten of those surahs, the taurat and injeel are mentioned together. 3:3, 3:48, 3:65, 5:46, 5:66, 5:68, 5:110, 7:157, 9:111, and 48:29.

5:47 talks about the followers of the injeel
57:27 talks about we giving to Isa the son of Miriam the injeel.

Greetings,


Giving to Isa the son of Miriam(PBUH) the injeel,the wisdom etc doesn't mean a book was given to jesus in his own hand...though sometimes the Quran mentions the injeel with the meaning of some written material could be found in Canonical and non canonical NT book

God gave him injeel in the verse you mentioned ,means taught him the wisdom....


no better example could be found than the NT itself:

Jesus' disciples following the footsteps of their beloved Teacher: "began going about among the villages, preaching the Gospel..." (Luke 9:6).


were they preaching John?Luke?Matthew?Mark?

Never

Had they copies of written material? Never

It was oral work.

later and after the departure of Jesus at least 30-40 years...It is said that some of such oral traditions were mixed with lots of hearsay,un-verfied,exaggerated,biased,zealous material ....

nice links to have a hint of such process

http://home.ca.inter.net/~oblio/jhcjp.htm

http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/james_still/gospel_john.html


peace
 
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God gave him injeel in the verse you mentioned ,means taught him the wisdom...

From where in the koran does this idea come from, that the injeel was either oral, or written, or a transfer of wisdom from God to Isa? The references in the koran certainly seem to indicate a physical book.
 
Biggest lie? You first need to prove (If not to us, then to yourself, because your faith is baseless without it) that the book you call the bible was written by people who had the authority to write it.

The point of my post was that we Muslim do not believe that the bible is as authoritative as Christians like to think it.

So when the Quran says the books have been changed, it is not referring to the bible used today, therefore asking us to show where and when it was changed from the original is pointless because we aren't even talking about the same book.
I can't ask the witnesses of Jesus' death and resurrection to prove it, because they aren't here to ask. It is written, "the just live by faith." Muslims need to prove the Bible is not authoritative instead of Christians proving that it is. I can't prove to you that God is real. Does that meant that my believing that he lives is not authortiative, because I can't prove it?:smile:
 
Hmmmm. We're missing some posts here. We had a good discussion going, too. Computers are great when they work. At least the site is back up.
 
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Hmmmm. We're missing some posts here. We had a good discussion going, too. Computers are great when they work. At least the site is back up.

That is true Don

yesterday I read a post by Seeker
tried to reply but the site was down...

anyway I remember the issue of the post


he asked ,what is the difinition of True Gospel

1-is it what Jesus said,preached no more,and no less.
or
2-It could be also a testimony of what Jesus did (miracles etc.....)?

the answer


Jesus' disciples "began going about among the villages, preaching the Gospel..." (Luke 9:6).


in the light of the previous verse, do you think that Jesus' disciples "began going about among the villages preaching

some of absured ,Human made writings such as the so called (Paul's inspired writings)



Romans
Chapter 16


6
Greet Mary, who has worked hard for you.
7
Greet Andronicus and Junia, 5 my relatives and my fellow prisoners; they are prominent among the apostles and they were in Christ before me.
8
Greet Ampliatus, my beloved in the Lord.
9
Greet Urbanus, our co-worker in Christ, and my beloved Stachys.
10
Greet Apelles, who is approved in Christ. Greet those who belong to the family of Aristobulus.
11
Greet my relative Herodion. Greet those in the Lord who belong to the family of Narcissus.
12
Greet those workers in the Lord, Tryphaena and Tryphosa. Greet the beloved Persis, who has worked hard in the Lord.
13
Greet Rufus, 6 chosen in the Lord, and his mother and mine.
14
Greet Asyncritus, Phlegon, Hermes, Patrobas, Hermas, and the brothers who are with them.
15
Greet Philologus, Julia, Nereus and his sister, and Olympas, and all the holy ones who are with them.
16
Greet one another with a holy kiss. All the churches of Christ greet you.


I don't think that God wasted his time and preached such useless stuff to Jesus (peace be upon him)


neither I think that God wasted the precious time of Jesus teaching him lessons from the Song of Solomon

Song of Solomon 8:10 "Dear brothers, I'm a walled-in virgin still, but my breasts are full— And when my lover sees me, he knows he'll soon be satisfied."

"How beautiful your sandaled feet, O prince's daughter! Your graceful legs are like jewels, the work of a craftsman's hands. Your navel is a rounded goblet that never lacks blended wine.

Song of Songs 4:5 "Your two breasts are like two fawns, like twin fawns of a gazelle that browse among the lilies." !!!!!!




The Holy Quran 6:93 Who can be more wicked than one who inventeth a lie against God, or saith, "I have received inspiration," when he hath received none, or (again) who saith, "I can reveal the like of what Allah hath revealed"? If thou couldst but see how the wicked (do fare) in the flood of confusion at death! - the angels stretch forth their hands, (saying),"Yield up your souls: this day shall ye receive your reward,- a penalty of shame, for that ye used to tell lies against God, and scornfully to reject of His signs!"
 
I don't recall Grace Seeker's exact question, but perhaps he will rejoin and clarify.

I will contribute a bit though. Of course the disciples when Jesus was alive, wouldn't preach anything written by Paul. Paul was not a Christian yet, so how could they preach about things like the letter to the Ephesians? Here is an extremely small portion of what we are told in the Bible about Jesus' message while he was alive.

Matthew 4:17 From that time Jesus began to preach and say, "Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand."

Later in Matthew 4:
23Jesus was going throughout all Galilee, teaching in their synagogues and proclaiming the gospel of the kingdom, and healing every kind of disease and every kind of sickness among the people.

24The news about Him spread throughout all Syria; and they brought to Him all who were ill, those suffering with various diseases and pains, demoniacs, epileptics, paralytics; and He healed them.

25Large crowds followed Him from Galilee and the Decapolis and Jerusalem and Judea and from beyond the Jordan.

From Luke and John:
* Luke 6:35 But love ye your enemies, and do good, and lend, hoping for nothing again; and your reward shall be great, and ye shall be the children of the Highest: for he is kind unto the unthankful and [to] the evil.

* Luke 10:27 And he answering said, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy strength, and with all thy mind; and thy neighbor as thyself.

* John 13:35 By this shall all [men] know that ye are my disciples, if ye have love one to another.

* John 15:12 This is my commandment, That ye love one another, as I have loved you.


From Jesus' words in the Bible, we get a good idea of what Christians believe he taught when he was alive. The sermon on the mount, the parables, the Lord's prayer, Jesus' predictions of his own death and resurrection, etc.

However, Grace Seeker's question was the muslim perspective on this issue. Hopefully we will hear from GS again soon.
 
I don't recall Grace Seeker's exact question, but perhaps he will rejoin and clarify.

I will contribute a bit though. Of course the disciples when Jesus was alive, wouldn't preach anything written by Paul. Paul was not a Christian yet, so how could they preach about things like the letter to the Ephesians? Jesus' predictions of his own death and resurrection, etc.

.

Greetings

FIRST:

Great notice from you....

Paul never met Jesus,never claims that his letters based on eyewitnesses' testimonies....
Just assertion ,that he met a ghost of Jesus....

such lie is exposed by the fact that He contradicts himself in such crucial narrative:

In the 9th chapter of Acts, Luke tells the story of the conversion of Saul, saying that "the men which journeyed with him stood speechless, hearing a voice, but seeing no man." In the 22nd chapter of the same book, Luke quotes Paul's own words regarding the same experience: "And they that were with me saw indeed the light, and were afraid; but they heard not the voice of him that spake unto me."


Luke says "hearing a voice," but Paul says, "They heard not the voice

his writtings from A to Z is wholly without merit,for the muslims.



SECOND:

I agree that the words of Jesus you quoted could be from his true Gospel based on true tradictions....

with the exception of (the so called Jesus' predictions of his own death and resurrection)

that is NT claim,which is not in accordance with the Quran ,hence not true Gospel and
Even if the Quran was silent about such matter,one could easily find out that such NT claim is false with all the problems with the narratives of the so called Crucifiction,resurrection eg,

the apparent contradictions therin,the 3 days and 3 nights problem,the non-existed OT' prophecy regarding the Messiah resurrection after 3 days,which the NT writers claimed to be exist etc.......


in sum and substance,

the New Testament(canonical and non canonical) has some of the true Gospel of Jesus mised with false addetions ,according to Islam.
one simple example of that is:


Matthew
Chapter 1


the angel of the Lord 9 appeared to him in a dream and said, "Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary your wife into your home. For it is through the holy Spirit that this child has been conceived in her.
21
She will bear a son and you are to name him Jesus, 10 because he will save his people from their sins."

22
All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had said through the prophet:
23
11 "Behold, the virgin shall be with child and bear a son, and they shall name him Emmanuel," which means "God is with us."



the above in green could be called a true gospel tradition,while the one in red is a false addetion by the writer ,cause there is Zero prophecy ,regarding the virgin birth in the Old Testament (and we discussed that before together).



Peace
 
Great thread,



If you are asking when do the Islamic teachings say the Bible was curropted then I don't think they do mention dates or names. If you ask when can starting from the point of Islam, then look back at history and say 'It is possible that changes happend here here and here' then that's a different matter.

I can't give you the Islamic teachings on what dates the Bible were curropted or by whom, but I can give you what I found outside the realms of Islamic sources about the 'Corruption' of the Bible.



Well if you want the answer from islamic sources, then what we know is that it would have been from Jesus time to Muhammad's time. I have yet to find dates of the instances.

If we speak outside the realms of Islam, then I personally think it would have been possibly curropted at the sources, through the time of its begging from pen to paper, and in the copies and also centuries later.



But what if the interpretation lead to textual curroption. Example,

Original Text - 'Then forth, Jesus took Simon Peter to the peak of the Hill'

Copy of Scribe - 'Then forth, Jesus took Simon Peter to the highest level of understanding amongst the disciples'

Someone might think it's rediculous but, I beg to differ, maybe you can enlighten me but I do think there have been 'exegis' and scribal addition to 'clarify' the text at times.



Original autographs of the Four Gospels? I wouldn't have thought so, the Injil is the word of God delivered to Jesus. The Four Gospels in their Original would have been Oral traditions, used by the authors to reflect their communities understanding or theological ideas about Jesus and so on. So I don't think even at the first autographs we would have that which Islam speaks of. The sources of the autographs are probably closer to it.



Whilst I don't agree with Abdul Fatah's whole statement, I namely disagree with, the 'since not all of the sources of the bible are publicly available.' since I think some might be, and since I dont think public availability would improve anything much.

But I do think that it is true that we are hardpressed to know now what is true and what is not. What originally was in the original writings and what was not. With the discovery of earlier and more accurate manuscripts which caused a need for revision of earlier editions, which had 'grave defects' I do wonder if any manuscripts would be found in the future which would do the same. There is only so much comparison between manuscripts can do, and also comparison between the four Gospels themselves can do.



Maybe we shouldn't diviate, there is a thread speaking on the validity of the Qur'ans retention. I do personally think that the social circumstances of the believers of each faith played a big part in its preservation. I believed that even as a non Muslim.



Well when you think about what you read in the Gospels, and that'd be an assumption that those records are accurate. The whole point of this thread. :) Although one of the most amazing changes is about the resurection in Mark's Gospel, where the author leaves the Gospel abpruptly and someone else then later comes and adds the whole resurrection story. Scholars have wondered who done that and why the original author stopped earlier.




I think it would be healthy to speak on the problems which I percieve with the resurrection stories. But we are here to speak of the 'changes' to the Bible, not on other such topics.




Yes, I think to say God is three is the Biggest lie. What's you point, to say that BIble is curropted is the Biggest lie, maybe we should take it more academically then namely preaching.



Well maybe you aint been using you logic or reasoning. You have yet to show why you believe it is an accurate account. We are here to discuss whether the Bible was curropted and share experiences on it. To simply come here and say 'Am I to believe it is curropted....Oh thats the Biggest lie and Hitler said something about making big lies....Jesus had witnesses (according to the same text we are sayin is curropt)...'

Noone is asking you to blindly believe the Bible has been changed. Get an NIV Bible, look at the footnotes, when they say that the 'earliest and most reliabile manuscripts do not contain these verses' [something to that effect] then you're on the first step of your journey. :)



On what basis do you rank the presumption of Muslims wrong? On the Basis that the Christians never claimed Jesus was given one? If so then what makes you think that the Christian position is right?

I believe The Bible is inerrant. I cut and pasted some information.
Definition of Inerrancy:
"Inerrancy is the view that when all the facts become known, they will demonstrate that the Bible in its original autographs and correctly interpreted is entirely true and never false in all it affirms, whether that relates to doctrine or ethics or to the social, physical, or life sciences."

People use to think the world was flat. If they read the Bible they could have learned it was round from Job were it refers to the circle of the earth.

Inerrancy regarding the Bible is rather different than what a lot of people think it is! Skeptics can easily show many differences in wording between different (English translations of) Bibles. They also seem to know a list of Verses in the (modern English language) Bible that seem to contradict otherwise known details or even itself. Therefore, they claim that Inerrancy is not true of the Bible.

If the actual subject at hand was the modern English-language Bible, they might be right. But scholars never really claim that ANY modern Bible is absolutely inerrant. They claim that the Original Manuscripts were! If it is accepted that God Inspired the writing of the Books of the Bible, then to claim otherwise would imply that either He made or permitted mistakes in the Bible or that He is nowhere near as all-knowing as we believe He is. So, the claim of Inerrancy in the Bible is only made regarding the Original Manuscripts. As far as anyone knows, all of those Original Manuscripts have long since disintegrated, and only Scribe-made copies of any of them still exist, so the claim of Inerrancy regarding the Original Manuscripts is probably beyond any possible proof.


Massive scientific research on around 20,000 old Scribe copied Manuscripts, has resulted in a number of tiny refinements regarding the source Greek and Ancient Hebrew texts. See the BELIEVE presentation on Bible for more on that. The current texts are believed to be extremely close to what the Original must have been.

The Original Greek or Ancient Hebrew words often have a number of different translations into English, which is the central reason why there are a large number of English Versions of the Bible. All of them are translated from the very same Greek and Ancient Hebrew texts. See the BELIEVE presentations on Literal Translation and on History of the Bible for more on that.

No formatting existed in the Original texts. Even though some modern Ministers insist that their Bible is Inerrant perfectly, regarding every punctuation mark, that is not true. Until at least 900 AD, no punctuation marks were included in the Scriptural texts. There were no Verse or Chapter numbers until centuries after that. Actually, prior to about 900 AD, the texts were written in Scriptua continua, where there were no spaces between words or sentences, no capitalization and no punctuation. It must have been extremely hard to read. See the BELIEVE presentation on Translating the Bible to get some idea about all that.

In any event, skeptics and critics might be correct regarding some minor errors about details in modern English Bibles, but their criticism is claimed to not apply to the Original Manuscripts.


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Inerrancy and Infallibility of the Bible
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The question of authority is central for any theology. Since Protestant theology has located authority in the Bible, the nature of biblical authority has been a fundamental concern. The Reformation passed to its heirs the belief that ultimate authority rests not in reason or a pope, but in an inspired Scripture. Thus, within conservative Protestantism the question of inerrancy has been much debated.

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The two words most often used to express the nature of scriptural authority are "inerrant" and "infallible." Though these two terms are, on etymological grounds, approximately synonymous, they are used differently. In Roman Catholic theology "inerrant" is applied to the Bible, "infallible" to the church, particularly the teaching function of pope and magisterium. Since Protestants reject the infallibility of both the pope and the church, the word has been used increasingly of the Scriptures. More recently "infallible" has been championed by those who hold to what B B Warfield called limited inspiration but what today is better called limited inerrancy. They limit the Bible's inerrancy to matters of faith and practice, particularly soteriological issues. Stephen T Davis reflects this tendency when he gives a stipulative definition for infallibility: the Bible makes no false or misleading statements about matters of faith and practice. In this article the two terms shall be used as virtually synonymous.

A number of points in this definition deserve discussion. Inerrancy is not presently demonstrable. Human knowledge is limited in two ways. First, because of our finitude and sinfulness, human beings misinterpret the data that exist. For instance, wrong conclusions can be drawn from inscriptions or texts. Second, we do not possess all the data that bear on the Bible. Some of that data may be lost forever, or they may be awaiting discovery by archaeologists. By claiming that inerrancy will be shown to be true after all the facts are known, one recognizes this. The defender of inerrancy argues only that there will be no conflict in the end.

Further, inerrancy applies equally to all parts of the Bible as originally written. This means that no present manuscript or copy of Scripture, no matter how accurate, can be called inerrant.

This definition also relates inerrancy to hermeneutics. Hermeneutics is the science of biblical interpretation. It is necessary to interpret a text properly, to know its correct meaning, before asserting that what a text says is false. Moreover, a key hermeneutical principle taught by the Reformers is the analogy of faith, which demands that apparent contradictions be harmonized if possible. If a passage appears to permit two interpretations, one of which conflicts with another passage and one of which does not, the latter must be adopted.

Probably the most important aspect of this definition is its definition of inerrancy in terms of truth and falsity rather than in terms of error. It has been far more common to define inerrancy as "without error," but a number of reasons argue for relating inerrancy to truth and falsity. To use "error" is to negate a negative idea.

Truth, moreover, is a property of sentences, not words. Certain problems are commonly associated with views related to "error." Finally, "error" has been defined by some in the contemporary debate in such a way that almost every book ever written will qualify as inerrant. Error, they say, is willful deception; since the Bible never willfully deceives its readers, it is inerrant. This would mean that almost all other books are also inerrant, since few authors intentionally deceive their readers.

Some have suggested that the Bible itself might help in settling the meaning of error. At first this appears to be a good suggestion, but there are reasons to reject it. First, "inerrancy" and "error" are theological rather than biblical terms. This means that the Bible applies neither word to itself. This does not mean that it is inappropriate to use these words of the Bible. Another theological term is "trinity." It is, however, more difficult to define such words. Second, a study of the Hebrew and Greek words for error may be classified into three groups: cases of error where intentionality cannot be involved (e.g., Job 6:24; 19:4), cases of error where intentionality may or may not be involved (e.g., 2 Sam. 6:7), and cases where intentionality must be involved (e.g., Judg. 16:10 - 12). Error, then, has nothing to do with intentionality.

Admittedly, precision of statement and measurement will not be up to modern standards, but as long as what is said is true, inerrancy is not in doubt.

Finally, the definition states that inerrancy covers all areas of knowledge. Inerrancy is not limited to matters of soteriological or ethical concern. It should be clear that biblical affirmations about faith and ethics are based upon God's action in history. No neat dichotomy can be made between the theological and factual.


Arguments for Inerrancy
The primary arguments for inerrancy are biblical, historical, and epistemological in nature.

The Biblical Argument
At the heart of the belief in an inerrant, infallible Bible is the testimony of Scripture itself. There is some disagreement as to whether Scripture teaches this doctrine explicitly or implicitly. The consensus today is that inerrancy is taught implicitly.
First, the Bible teaches its own inspiration, and this requires inerrancy. The Scriptures are the breath of God (2 Tim. 3:16), which guarantees they are without error.

Second, in Deut. 13:1 - 5 and 18:20 - 22 Israel is given criteria for distinguishing God's message and messenger from false prophecies and prophets. One mark of a divine message is total and absolute truthfulness. A valid parallel can be made between the prophet and the Bible. The prophet's word was usually oral, although it might be recorded and included in a book; the writers of Scripture communicated God's word in written form. Both were instruments of divine communication, and in both cases the human element was an essential ingredient.

Third, the Bible teaches its own authority, and this requires inerrancy. The two most commonly cited passages are Matt. 5:17 - 20 and John 10: 34 - 35. Both record the words of Jesus. In the former Jesus said that heaven and earth will pass away before the smallest detail of the law fails to be fulfilled. The law's authority rests on the fact that every minute detail will be fulfilled. In John 10:34 - 35 Jesus says that Scripture cannot be broken and so is absolutely binding. While it is true that both passages emphasize the Bible's authority, this authority can only be justified by or grounded in inerrancy. Something that contains errors cannot be absolutely authoritative.

Fourth, Scripture uses Scripture in a way that supports its inerrancy. At times an entire argument rests on a single word (e.g., John 10:34 - 35 and "God" in Ps. 82:6), the tense of a verb (e.g., the present tense in Matt. 22:32), and the difference between a singular and a plural noun (e.g., "seed" in Gal. 3:16). If the Bible's inerrancy does not extend to every detail, these arguments lose their force. The use of any word may be a matter of whim and may even be an error. It might be objected that the NT does not always cite OT texts with precision, that as a matter of fact precision is the exception rather than the rule. This is a fair response, and an adequate answer requires more space than is available here. A careful study of the way in which the OT is used in the NT, however, demonstrates that the NT writers quoted the OT not cavalierly but quite carefully.

Finally, inerrancy follows from what the Bible says about God's character. Repeatedly, the Scriptures teach that God cannot lie (Num. 23:19; 1 Sam. 15:29; Titus 1:2; Heb. 6:18). If, then, the Bible is from God and his character is behind it, it must be inerrant and infallible.


The Historical Argument
A second argument for biblical inerrancy is that this has been the view of the church throughout its history. One must remember that if inerrancy was part of the corpus of orthodox doctrine, then in many discussions it was assumed rather than defended. Further, the term "inerrancy" may be a more modern way of expressing the belief in the English language. Nevertheless, in each period of the church's history one can cite clear examples of those who affirm inerrancy.
In the early church Augustine writes, "I have learned to yield this respect and honour only to the canonical books of Scripture: of these alone do I most firmly believe that the authors were completely free from error."

The two great Reformers, Luther and Calvin, bear testimony to biblical infallibility. Luther says, "But everyone, indeed, knows that at times they (the fathers) have erred as men will; therefore I am ready to trust them only when they prove their opinions from Scripture, which has never erred." While Calvin does not use the phrase "without error," there can be little question that he embraced inerrancy. Of the writers of the Gospels he comments, "The Spirit of God . . . appears purposely to have regulated their style in such a manner, that they all wrote one and the same history, with the most perfect agreement, but in different ways."

In modern times one could cite the works of Princeton theologians Archibald Alexander, Charles Hodge, A A Hodge, and B B Warfield as modern formulators and defenders of the full inerrancy and infallibility of Scripture.

The biblical and historical arguments are clearly more important than the two that follow. Should they be shown to be false, inerrancy would suffer a mortal blow.


The Epistemological Argument
Because epistemologies differ, this argument has been formulated in at least two very different ways. For some, knowledge claims must, to be justified, be indubitable or incorrigible. It is not enough that a belief is true and is believed on good grounds. It must be beyond doubt and question. For such an epistemology inerrancy is essential. Inerrancy guarantees the incorrigibility of every statement of Scripture. Therefore, the contents of Scripture can be objects of knowledge.
Epistemologies that do not require such a high standard of certitude result in this argument for inerrancy: If the Bible is not inerrant, then any claim it makes may be false. This means not that all claims are false, but that some might be. But so much of the Bible is beyond direct verification. Thus, only its inerrancy assures the knower that his or her claim is justified.


The Slippery Slope Argument
Finally, some see inerrancy as so fundamental that those who give it up will soon surrender other central Christian doctrines. A denial of inerrancy starts one down a slope that is slippery and ends in even greater error.

Objections to Inerrancy
The arguments for inerrancy have not gone unchallenged. In what follows, responses by those who object to each argument will be given and answers will be offered.

The Slippery Slope Argument
This argument is both the least important and most disliked by those who do not hold to inerrancy. What kind of relationship exists between the doctrine of inerrancy and other central Christian doctrines, they ask, that the denial of all inerrancy will of necessity lead to a denial of other doctrines? Is it a logical relationship? Is it a causal or psychological relationship? On close examination, none of these seems to be the case. Many people who do not affirm inerrancy are quite clearly orthodox on other matters of doctrine.
What has been said to this point is true. It should be noted, however, that numerous cases do support the slippery slope argument. For many individuals and institutions the surrender of their commitment to inerrancy has been a first step to greater error.


The Epistemological Argument
The epistemological argument has been characterized by some as an example of overbelief. A single error in the Bible should not lead one to conclude that it contains no truth. If one finds one's spouse wrong on some matter, one would be wrong to conclude that one's spouse can never be trusted on any matter.
This objection, however, overlooks two very important matters. First, while it is true that one error in Scripture would not justify the conclusion that everything in it is false, it would call everything in Scripture into question. We could not be sure that everything in it is true. Since the theological is based on the historical and since the historical is open to error, how can one be sure that the theological is true? There is no direct means for verification. Second, while the case of the errant spouse is true as far as it goes, it does not account for all the issues involved in inerrancy. One's spouse does not claim to be inerrant; the Bible does. One's spouse is not omniscient and omnipotent; the God of the Bible is. God knows everything, and he can communicate with man.


The Historical Argument
Those who reject inerrancy argue that this doctrine is an innovation, primarily of the Princeton theologians in the nineteenth century. Throughout the centuries the church believed in the Bible's authority but not its total inerrancy. The doctrine of inerrancy grew out of an apologetic need. Classical liberalism and its growing commitment to an increasingly radical biblical criticism made the orthodox view of Scripture vulnerable. Therefore, the Princeton theologians devised the doctrine of total inerrancy to stem the rising tide of liberalism. This represented a departure from the views of their predecessors in the orthodox tradition.
Calvin, for example, speaks of God "accommodating" himself to man in the communication of his revelation. Calvin also says that the Bible's teaching does not need to be harmonized with science, and that anyone who wishes to prove to the unbeliever that the Bible is God's Word is foolish.

These objections to the historical argument do not do justice to the evidence. They fail to reckon with the host of clear affirmations of inerrancy by Christian theologians throughout the church's history, only a few of which were given above.

Moreover, the treatment of figures like Calvin is unfair. While Calvin talks about accommodation, he does not mean accommodation to human error. He means that God condescended to speak in language that finite human beings could understand. In one place he says that God spoke only baby talk. He never implies that what God said is in error. On matters of science and proof, the same sort of thing is true. Calvin nowhere says that the Scriptures cannot be harmonized with science or that they cannot be proven to be the Word of God. He felt rather that such an exercise is futile in itself because of man's sin. Hence, he relied on the testimony of the Holy Spirit to the unbeliever. The problem is in man, not in the Scriptures or the evidence for their origin. The theologians of the church may have been wrong in their belief, but they did believe in an inerrant Bible.


The Biblical Argument
A common objection to the biblical argument is that the Bible nowhere teaches its own inerrancy. The point seems to be a subtle one. Those who make this point mean that the Bible nowhere says "all Scripture is inerrant" in the way that it teaches "all Scripture is given by inspiration of God" (11 Tim. 3:16). While it is true that no verse says explicitly that Scripture is inerrant, biblical inerrancy is implied by or follows from a number of things the Bible does teach explicitly.
Another objection is that inerrancy is unfalsifiable. Either the standard for error is so high that nothing can qualify (e.g., even contradictions have difficulty in qualifying), or the falsity or truth of scriptural statements cannot be demonstrated until all the facts are known. The doctrine of inerrancy is not, however, unfalsifiable in principle; it is unfalsifiable only at present. Not everything that bears on the truth and falsity of the Bible is yet available. How then is it possible to affirm so strongly the doctrine of inerrancy now? Should one be more cautious or even suspend judgment? The inerrantist wants to be true to what he or she thinks the Bible teaches. And as independent data have become available (e.g., from archaeology), they have shown the Bible to be trustworthy.

Another criticism is that inerrancy fails to recognize sufficiently the human element in the writing of Scripture. The Bible teaches that it is a product of human as well as divine authorship. This objection, though, underestimates the divine element. The Bible is a divine - human book. To de-emphasize either side of its authorship is a mistake. Furthermore, this criticism misunderstands man, implying that humanity requires error. This is false. The spokesmen of God were human, but inspiration kept them from error.

The objection has been raised that if one uses the methods of biblical criticism, one must accept its conclusions. But why? One need accept only the methods that are valid and the conclusions that are true.

Finally, it has been objected that since the original autographs no longer exist and since the doctrine applies only to them, inerrancy is meaningless. The identification of inerrancy with the original autographs is a neat hedge against disproof. Whenever an "error" is pointed out, the inerrantist can say that it must not have existed in the original autographs.

Limiting inerrancy to the original autographs could be such a hedge, but it need not be. This qualification of inerrancy grows out of the recognition that errors crop up in the transmission of any text. There is, however, a great difference between a text that is initially inerrant and one that is not. The former, through textual criticism, can be restored to a state very near the inerrant original; the latter leaves far more doubt as to what was really said.

It might be argued that the doctrine of inerrant originals directs attention away from the authority of our present texts. Perhaps inerrantists sometimes fail to emphasize the authority of our present texts and versions as they should. Is the remedy, however, to undercut the base for their authority? To deny the authority of the original is to undermine the authority of the Bible the Christian has today.

P D Feinberg
(Elwell Evangelical Dictionary)

Bibliography
For inerrancy
D A Carson and J D Woodbridge, eds., Scripture and Truth; N L Geisler, ed., Inerrancy; J W Montgomery, ed., God's Inerrant Word: An International Symposium on the Trustworthiness of Scripture; B B Warfield, The Inspiration and Authority of the Bible; J D Woodbridge, Biblical Authority: A Critique of the Rogers / McKim Proposal.

Against inerrancy
D M Beegle, Scripture, Tradition and Infallibility; S A Davis, The Debate About the Bible; J Rogers, ed., Biblical Authority; J Rogers and D McKim, The Interpretation and Authority of the Bible.



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Also, see:
Infallibility

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The individual articles presented here were generally first published in the early 1980s. This subject presentation was first placed on the Internet in May 1997.
This page - - Inerrancy and Infallibility of the Bible - - is at http://mb-soft.com/believe/text/inerranc.htm
This subject presentation was last updated on 12/31/2006 16:10:25




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You're heart is in the right place, Alapiana. But I'm not really interested so much in the inerrancy issue from a Christian viewpoint, as I'm not talking wanting to spend our time arguing between Christian versus Muslim beliefs with regard to the Bible. Though feel free to start a thread to discuss that if you so desire. I might even join you there.

I designed this one to try to better understand the Muslim viewpoint -- as I already have a pretty good grasp on the Christian viewpoint(s) -- specifically I have noted that Muslims seem to be in general agreement that the Bible is corrupted and speak of it in this way often. But they also provide very few details as to when this took place. Some Muslims even cite as proofs of the Bible's corruption things that took place well after the time of Muhammad (pbuh), so I know that those were not what was intended when that idea was forumalted. The purpose of this thread is to see if we can establish an agreement as to when Muslims believe that this corruption took place.

We are getting several different answers. But the one I would like to pursue more is this idea that the true Injeel that Jesus spoke was the one that his disciples preached when the Gospel of Mark describes them being sent out two by two. It seems that perhaps we should not even use the terms Injeel and Gospel as synonyms for what Muslims mean by the Injeel appears to be something completely different from what Christians mean by the Gospels.

What I am curious about right now is: Are you saying that the Gospels became corrupted the moment that the writers decided to include more than just this simple Injeel that Jesus gave to his disciples about the Kingdom of God? Are you saying that when they decided to tell about some of Jesus' other sayings and acts: feeding 5000 thousand, healing a blind man, casting out demons, calming a stormy sea, that this decision to tell of these events in the life of Jesus corrupted the Gospels? Are you saying that even if the record they provided was an accurate record of the events in Jesus' life, that simply the fact that they told more than the Injeel was in itself an act of corruption?
 
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