I was reading sura As-Saffat today in my blue, translated 'Noble Qur'an' which is parallel with tafseer and commentaries. (just so you might know which one I'm talking about, since I don't know the name of the translator.)
In this chapter I noticed something different.
164:And there is not one of us (angels) but has his known place
165: And verily, we (angels), we stand in rows (for the prayers as you Muslims stand in rows for your prayers);
166: And verily, we (angels), indeed are those who glorify.
It is the angel speaking in reference to him and the other angels. Why is this so? Since the Qur'an is the word of Allah, how can this be there? Allah is not his angels, or is there some unique relationship that I am unaware of that makes this Allah's word as well? Does this happen elsewhere in the Qur'an?
No one seems interested in this question, is it not valid?
I doubt that's the reason. Maybe no one is knowledgeable enough to answer your question. Try asking someone in your local masjid, maybe they can help you.
In the Qur'an, Allah will narrate to us what other people say - whether its what Prophets, pious people, tyrants, and many other creations of Allah said.
Every single letter recited from the Qur'an is truly the word of Allah - therefore when He tells us that the angels said one thing, we accept that while knowing that it is Allah who is saying that this is what the angels said.
Here is another translation of those verses which i think will help answer you question, Insha'Allah
037.164 (Those ranged in ranks say): "Not one of us but has a place appointed;
037.165 "And we are verily ranged in ranks (for service);
037.166 "And we are verily those who declare (Allah’s) glory!"
Has the tafsir/commentary not explained it?
The stuff in the parenthetics. Is it included in the Arabic? I don't know Arabic but since it's not in the the translation I posted, I'm confused: especially about the word 'say'. If the 'say' is in the Arabic, then I understand the passage much better, but if its not, what allows someone to place it in the translation?
The stuff in the parenthetics. Is it included in the Arabic? I don't know Arabic but since it's not in the the translation I posted, I'm confused: especially about the word 'say'. If the 'say' is in the Arabic, then I understand the passage much better, but if its not, what allows someone to place it in the translation?
lewcow, it appears to be nothing more than Allah quoting what the angels say in the Quran.
It is no uncommon, for anohter example just look at surat al-fatiha:
1. In the Name of Allâh, the Most Beneficent, the Most Merciful.
2. All the praises and thanks be to Allâh, the Lord of the 'Alamîn (mankind, jinns and all that exists). [1]
3. The Most Beneficent, the Most Merciful.
4. The Only Owner (and the Only Ruling Judge) of the Day of Recompense (i.e. the Day of Resurrection)
5. You (Alone) we worship, and You (Alone) we ask for help (for each and everything).
6. Guide us to the Straight Way
7. The Way of those on whom You have bestowed Your Grace, not (the way) of those who earned Your Anger (such as the Jews), nor of those who went astray (such as the Christians).
The parts in bold, obviously Allah is not asking for himself for guidance... Won't say no more in case I say something wrong, but I hope you understand.
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