It is also very widely known in Ahlus Sunnha wal Jamaah that Ibn Taymiyyah r.a had many tafarrudaat(independent) view that were totally different from the jamhoor (majority) of ahlus sunnah scholars. eg. 3-1 talaaq issue,
there is consensus among the four madh-hab in 3-3 talaaq issue (independent of time and place) but Allamah Ibn Taymiyyah r.a had his own very independent rulings over it (where his this ruling is similar to shias of jafari sect),
So dear brother, is there an Ijma' or is there not?
Dear brother, it is quite contradictory for you to claim that this is a majority opinion, whilst the minority differed; and then for you to claim that all scholars agreed on a ruling, both at the same time, in the same sentence.
My dear brother, there are alot of issues in which scholars have claimed an ijma' while a khilaf already exists and is establised and it was precisely about this that Imam Ahmad said that whoever claims that there is an Ijma' is a liar, for people may have differed.
Note: I am not addressing any scholars.
But I am addressing
YOU because
YOU have said in
YOUR OWN WORDS that
i) there is an Ijma'
ii) the majority held this position, i.e. you have established a khilaf
So tell me which one is it? Ijma' or Jamhoor?
I don't think you can get yourself out of this one
Edit- Sorry, I didn't realize this thread was closed. Anyway, I'm not interested in debating this as you can go on pretending there is an Ijma', but I don't think you'll be able to get yourself out of the contradiction you put yourself in anyway.
