AnonymousPoster
Anonymous
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Dear brothers and sisters, I would like to know what the right of the wife is in accordance to the property she owns and has bought through her own money (not the money of the husband).
Lets say there was a couple ab (a being the male, b being the female), and b bought a house from the money she earned through her occupation. Few years later, Mr.A's mother asked A to give the house(that Mrs. B bought) to her. Mr.A agreed to her mom without the consent of his wife B.
So now my question is can the wife in this situation say no to her husband giving her house to his mom, and she never even agreed to it in the first place.
:wa: