joesixpack
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Last week at the University of Reading there was an incedent with the student atheist society. They were at an event where, as a publicity stunt, they placed a card with the Prophet's name on a pineapple. The stated goal of this little stunt was to provoke discussion about the Gillian Gibbons blasphemy case from 2007 in Sudan.
According to the Daily Mail story (which, it turns out, Ican't link to)
This story was being discussed on another forum (of which I am a member) made up of mostly atheists, a few Christians and no Muslims (from what I can tell). The argument seemed pretty evenly split among the participants on that forum. It seemed about half the atheists (and the one Christian taking part in the discussion) felt it was intentionally disrespectful towards Muslims and should have been taken down, the other half felt that "free speech" is sacrosanct and, though the atheist society was intentionally rude and sophomoric, that the speech was protected.
The atheist society makes it quite clear that they intended a reaction, while at the same time pretending that the issue of free speech was at stake. From my perspective, I see a minority group (who have been the target of hate crimes) being singled out for intentional insult. I think most Muslims, even the most insouciant follower, would perceive that as a veiled threat, at the very least. I think I made my views on free speech pretty clear in another thread (Does Free Speech exist in Islam).
I find it rather ironic that the Gillian Gibbons case was what they wanted to invoke when It was, in fact, British Muslims who lobbied the Sudanese government so hard for her pardon and release.
My question is, in a case where a non-Muslim uses the Prophet's name in a disrespectful manner accidentally, wouldn't a Muslim simply point that out to them? I think the Sudanese case was more politically motivated than religiously. Clearly, Ms. Gibbons hadn't mean any offense, and has apologized repeatedly. And as I said, there were many Muslims who came to her defense when the case made headlines. I have been told (not by any Muslim) that it would still be considered a crime in an Islamic society, yet I find this difficult to believe based on the Muslims I've known in the past. What are your thoughts?
Also, I'm going to have some follow up questions.
According to the Daily Mail story (which, it turns out, Ican't link to)
The Reading University Atheist, Humanist and Secularist Society (RAHS) said they wanted to celebrate free speech and promote their upcoming debate 'Should we respect religion?'
But they were ordered to remove the offending fruit by union staff who said their actions were causing 'upset and distress' to a number of Muslim students and other societies.
RAHS refused, citing that they had labelled the pineapple after the Islamic prophet to 'encourage discussion about blasphemy, religion, and liberty'.
A spokesman said: 'We wanted to celebrate the fact that we live in a country in which free speech is protected and where it is lawful to call a pineapple by whatever name one chooses.'
They claimed the union then issued them with the ultimatum: 'Either the pineapple goes or you do.'
This story was being discussed on another forum (of which I am a member) made up of mostly atheists, a few Christians and no Muslims (from what I can tell). The argument seemed pretty evenly split among the participants on that forum. It seemed about half the atheists (and the one Christian taking part in the discussion) felt it was intentionally disrespectful towards Muslims and should have been taken down, the other half felt that "free speech" is sacrosanct and, though the atheist society was intentionally rude and sophomoric, that the speech was protected.
The atheist society makes it quite clear that they intended a reaction, while at the same time pretending that the issue of free speech was at stake. From my perspective, I see a minority group (who have been the target of hate crimes) being singled out for intentional insult. I think most Muslims, even the most insouciant follower, would perceive that as a veiled threat, at the very least. I think I made my views on free speech pretty clear in another thread (Does Free Speech exist in Islam).
I find it rather ironic that the Gillian Gibbons case was what they wanted to invoke when It was, in fact, British Muslims who lobbied the Sudanese government so hard for her pardon and release.
My question is, in a case where a non-Muslim uses the Prophet's name in a disrespectful manner accidentally, wouldn't a Muslim simply point that out to them? I think the Sudanese case was more politically motivated than religiously. Clearly, Ms. Gibbons hadn't mean any offense, and has apologized repeatedly. And as I said, there were many Muslims who came to her defense when the case made headlines. I have been told (not by any Muslim) that it would still be considered a crime in an Islamic society, yet I find this difficult to believe based on the Muslims I've known in the past. What are your thoughts?
Also, I'm going to have some follow up questions.
