Can you prove that the Quran has been altered yaa ayyuhaal kafiroon?

No they don't. Greek delta is used as a measure of distance (along an axis). 'd' is the differential distance.
Peace;
Would you please pick up some scientific dictionary and verify my statement.No doubt Delta is used for other meaning also.

Δ (Δ) the Greek capital letter delta; symbol for an increment, e.g., ΔG (see Gibbs free energy, under energy); also used alone as an abbreviation for change (as in temperature).
Reference:
http://www.mercksource.com/pp/us/cn...zcommonzSzdorlandszSzdorlandzSzdmd_d_01zPzhtm


Best of luck
 
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Learning Arabic (Qur'anic or otherwise) and memorising the Qur'an are totally different projects. Neither requires the other, although certainly the second would be a lot easier having previously done the first!

learning a new language always starts with a book, certainly many non-Arabic speaking Muslims are introduced to Arabic only through the Quran, and that is actually the best book to start with if we are going to strictly pursue perfect linguistic skills and proper grammar over looking all else!
Peace
 
Peace;
Would you please pick up some scientific dictionary and verify my statement. No doubt Delta is used for other meaning also.

Your statement is wrong and cannot be so 'verified' in any scientific dictionary.

Δ (Δ) the Greek capital letter delta; symbol for an increment, e.g., ΔG (see Gibbs free energy, under energy); also used alone as an abbreviation for change (as in temperature).

That is indeed an explanation of how Δ is used. Your claim, though, was that this was the same use as 'd', i.e that Δx = dx. That claim is not correct. As I said dx (or d-whatever you like) is the differential increment - if you don't know what that means go look it up. Or not, as the case may be; this really is way off topic!
 
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Your statement is wrong and cannot be so 'verified' in any scientific dictionary.



That is indeed an explanation of how Δ is used. Your claim, though, was that this was the same use as 'd', i.e that Δx = dx. That claim is not correct. As I said dx (or d-whatever you like) is the differential increment - if you don't know what that means go look it up. Or not, as the case may be; this really is way off topic!
:sl:
You are dragging every thing off topic .Please pick up Chamber's twentieth century dictionary and read its supplement on Greek letters.I do not have its software copy ,otherwise would have copied pasted.
Best of luck
 
Dear Bsirah Peace;
As Brother Habeshi said ,I also do not want to interfere but just wanted to clarify a few points with your permission.

Dear as far as the interpretation of the Quranic Aya or Hadith is concerned ,it is by itself a science.If we start picking up material from here and there isolatedly and then placing our arguments on them ,then it is not fair.

I give you an example.Captopril is an Antihypertensive medicine.But it is contraindicated in Bilateral renal artery stenosis.If someone reads only first sentence in some book or the other one ,and tries to pick up the result ,then it is definitely wrong.
Now coming to the point.I am giving a Reference below about the last two Aya of Sura Tauba ,the other name Sura Baraa,at :


فتح الباري لابن حجر - (ج 14 / ص 193)
وَأَخْرَجَ اِبْن أَبِي دَاوُدَ مِنْ طَرِيق مُحَمَّد بْن إِسْحَاق عَنْ يَحْيَى بْن عَبَّاد بْنِ عَبْد اللَّه بْن الزُّبَيْر عَنْ أَبِيهِ قَالَ " أَتَى الْحَارِث بْن خُزَيْمَةَ بِهَاتَيْنِ الْآيَتَيْنِ ، مِنْ آخِر سُورَة بَرَاءَة فَقَالَ : أَشْهَد أَنِّي سَمِعْتهمَا مِنْ رَسُول اللَّه صَلَّى اللَّه عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ وَوَعَيْتهمَا ، فَقَالَ عُمَر : وَأَنَا أَشْهَد لَقَدْ سَمِعْتهمَا
I translate the highlighted sentence:
Haarith bin Khuzama brought these two verses from the end of Sura Baraa'at (other name of Al Tauba)and said ." I testify that I heard both from the Holy prophet :arabic5: and remembered them.So said Umar ."I testify that certainly I heard both of them .
Now let me know what is the problem with them.


Dear asad, may i have a link to your source and a link to commentary (it can be arabic) on it? thank you.



Now the problem is with two images .Again let me say this is another example of ignorance on the Calligraphy of the Arabic language.
Let me give you another example :
In science books Greek letters are used very frequently. For difference Greek letter Delta is used .In lower case it has some other shape ,in upper case it is like triangle ,and some times it is simply written as "d".E.g dP = delta P = difference in pressure.All of these three forms convey the same meaning.No sensible person will say that these are different.I hope you understand them
Best of luck


ignorance on the calligraphy? im afraid not. i would suggest reading it carefully, maybe zooming in on it if you would like.

________


dear woodrow, i have seen arguments like that before, however they are not flawless and do not take into account numerous things.
 
Dear asad, may i have a link to your source and a link to commentary (it can be arabic) on it? thank you.
I have put the reference .It is Fathul Bari by Ibne Hajar.Unfortunately it is not on the website ,otherwise should have put the link.But you can verify if you catch hold of it.
Your Guru might be having it.

ignorance on the calligraphy? im afraid not. i would suggest reading it carefully, maybe zooming in on it if you would like.
I will definitely say that is calligraphic.Because even today some scripts put alif by "ا " and some as a vertical bar over the alphabet as it is on the yaa.This is a Calligraphic style.
________
 
Dearest Ansar Al’ Adl., how does this make the Quran anymore valid? I continue to look through your arguments and I find very few relevant points on the Quran. The Quran is highly memorized; okay, however, this is no proof of the Quran’s validity. It is testimony that in many areas of the Islamic world, children are forced from an early age to memorize verses of the Quran, and I will not comment on my own personal experience in such areas. The practice gives the Quran no legitimacy. It is a certainly extraordinary achievement, but does not make it divine.

If I am mistaken, the point of this thread is to show that the Quran has not changed from what it was during the Prophets (pbuh) time, not to show that it is the true word of God.

I found the last verse of Surat at-Tauba (Repentance) with Abi Khuzaima al-Ansari, and I did not find it with anybody other than him. The verse is: 'Verily there has come to you an Apostle from amongst yourselves. It grieves him that you should receive any injury or difficulty ... (till the end of Bara'a)'. (Sahih al-Bukhari, Vol. 6, p.478).

The passage speaks for itself without additional enquiry; we can see rather evidently that, in his hunt for the Qur'an, Zaid’ was reliant on one source alone for the final two verses of Surat at-Tauba. This indication suggests that no one else knew these verses and that, had they not been found with Abu Khuzaimah, the verses would have been absent from the Qur'anic manuscript.

He already answered this. The other companions knew the verses, but they needed to be witness to it, which is something different (I'm not sure what the difference is. Perhaps it is referring to the written form). And about him being the only person having this verse, he already answered that by saying this was the man who the prophet said was worth two witnesses, therefore all they needed was him because he counted as two witnesses already.
 
Shalom Aleikhem (Peace be upon you),

The book I have referred you to by M. M. Azami goes into great depth in its analysis of the various orientalist theories and fallacies in their discussions on qur'anic compilation, orthography, paleography, etc. So none of the material is new to me, I've studied the various theories and their refutations.

I understand that, and if I ever have enough free time I will look into reading the book, but your post said the following: “ First, let me just point out that we should be referring to scholarly, academic sources that provide the references and research for all conclusions.” All I did, was point out to you, that we could very well refer to scholarly, academic sources from the scholarly academia such as Gabriel Sawma that have presented research backing their opinions regarding the Quran. They’re research and conclusions although you may deny it are not of the intention of “debunking” Islam, but instead wish to study the origins of a book which so many revere. If such overwhelming evidence was provided in books which proved his arguments utterly wrong… if such “refutations” were existent than I see no reason why he would not reevaluate his positions regarding the origins and the development of the Quran. Do you think the intentions of the academia are suspect because I would not want to quote a book which has an agenda, so if any author I ask you about is suspect in his intention, I would love to know this before I read to much into their material.

While Jews do maintain some of their past oral tradition, prayers in Judaism can be done in any language (as noted in the Talmud)

Unture. Specific prayers must be said in Hebrew. The Torah recitation must also be in Hebrew.

I'm afraid not. As I've said before, I've gone through this point of discussion with many Jews and Christians and pointed out that the liturgical tradition in Judaism is starkly different from the Muslim practice and the integral role recitation of the Qur'an forms in the daily prayers (3 of which are audible) not to mention the congregational prayers of friday, eid, and most importantly during ramadan.

During the week, the Torah portion or “parasha” is read on Mondays, Thursdays, and Saturday mornings and Saturday afternoons. The Torah is divided into 52 portions so throughout the entire Jewish year we can finish the reading of the Torah.

In any Orthodox synagogue in the world you will find people all over the congregation with books called “chumashim” who follow the Jew reciting the Torah during the prayer service. If a mispronunciation is made, or a mistake is made, than the congregation usually in close unison will correct the Torah reader in the middle of his recitation. Torah readings are an integral part of the Jewish prayer service. Not to mention that the majority of prayers found in “siddurim” are from Tanakh verses put together in verse orders from different books forming nice prayers. I would suggest buying "the Complete Artscroll Siddur" where they usually on the bottom of the siddur will reference different parts of the prayer to different verses from the Tanakh.

Where in Judaism do you have the entire congregation listening to the Rabbi reciting the ENTIRE Torah cover to cover from memory??

That is not a tradition of Judaism and Judaism does not encourage such practices. The reading of the law from the scroll however and the meticulous way of correcting the slightest mistakes 4 times a week, every week, every year is our tradition.

When Uthman ordered that all other copies/parchments be either burned or erased it was because such copies were neither verified nor authorized under the consensus of the companions and consequently they could be written according to a specific dialect which would lead to confusion and bickering or they could even contain the odd scribal error which could also lead to confusion.

Does the Hadith say this? I was under the impression the Hadith says soldiers were arguing so one version of the Quran had to unite the Muslims. The matter under question was that if it was merely other dialects or other text. Does the Hadith say which?

Yes!! This is considered a dignified way of disposing of God's words. And this should not surprise you because many Jews do it too!! To quote one Rabbi:

My minhag opposes the practice. Burial is the way of disposal of holy items. Not burning. Possibly this Rabbi follows a different minhag. The Talmud however says in Moed Kattan 26a, that you must tear your clothes (a sign of mourning) if you see a Torah scroll that is on fire or is burning, so I am not sure how this Rabbi views this clear passage in the Talmud.

Azami examines these slight differences in the ancient manuscripts and discusses them in detail noting their extreme scarcity and provides a number of explanations, which for me to regurgitate would turn an already long post into a multipage essay.

Could you provide a summary?

I have no clue what you are trying to demonstrate by quoting this narration. Please be more explicit.

I would suggest reading the narration again. An example of a man lying about memorizing a verse appears in the Hadith showing it could have been possible if no alcohol was smelt that the verse he claimed here heard may have somehow been compiled into the Quran. Hence my comment: “ There could have been one mistake, right? Is just one all it takes?

I missed this in my earlier post. Jalal ud-Din as-Suyuti and Mulla Ali Qari are two people, muslim scholars, not books.

I know… I phrased it wrong. It should have been: “Have you heard of the [books by] Siyootee and Mulla Ali Qari regarding Quranic text collections?”

Secondly, most of the narrations on this topic have serious defects in their chains of transmission and are all weak or fabricated.

The dismissal of all evidence which does not suit you does not strengthen your argument in my humble opinion.

The short answer to the question of why shias and sunnis have different sources is that shias consider many of the most prominent companions of the prophet outright liars and instead rely on the shia infallible imams for guidance. The long answer is to actually go study the tremendous body of knowledge called 'Ulûm al-Hadîth (sciences of the prophetic narrations) and learn for yourself the details concerning the meticulous methodology used in the grading and analysis of prophetic traditions. Your question is a bit like asking why some people accept conventional medicine over 'witch-doctor' treatments - the answer entails a little bit of familiarity with both.

The most “prominent” is your label while; “liars” is there’s. I am sure I would receive a complete opposite side to the story from any knowledgeable Shiite scholar, so I still pose the question, that with the various interpretation that people have made of the Quran and Hadith and how they argue on many things… what sect does one convert to when converting to Islam, if they are to be saved from this ceaseless place of fire which burns the “unbelievers”?

Likewise, when you ask which sect one should pick, it is like asking which is right - Judaism or Christianity.

Not an applicable argument. Judaism does not contend nor even endeavor to convert non-Jews, nor do they believe in an eternal hell for all the “unbelievers”, so consequently, Islam which demands the acceptance of all of humanity to the teachings of Mohammad from Arabia; is not analogous to Judaism in these regards.

What do you want me to explain? The commentaries are in arabic so you'll have to be more specific to let me know what you're looking for.

If they are online, could you please post the Arabic commentaries? I can get them translated so they do not have to be in English. Thank you in advance.

Peace.
 
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Greetings,
I made a relatively long post, and unfortunately mine was one of those lost in the server upgrade so I'm going to repeat what I previously wrote, to the best of my memory.
Greetings and Peace Ansar Al ‘Adl, do you mind if I comment on your discussion with the other member? If I am intruding them simply delete my post and PM me anything you wish to clarify.
I don't mind at all for you to participate in the discussion or make some contribution, but unfortunately almost everything you have written was already previously explained in great detail. This shall be seen in what follows.
Dearest Ansar Al’ Adl., how does this make the Quran anymore valid? I continue to look through your arguments and I find very few relevant points on the Quran. The Quran is highly memorized; okay, however, this is no proof of the Quran’s validity.
I explicitly debunked this strawman fallacy in my previous post and devoted no less than two paragraphs to exposing the fallacy:
Ansar Al-'Adl said:
Now the fallacy you make in your present post is that you respond to my comments on the memorization and recitation of the Qur'an by saying, "Oh, that doesn't prove the book is true", which is an absolute strawman. I've spoken about proving the veracity of the message through other points in other threads and I only mentioned these facts in relation to 1) the preservation of the Qur'an and 2) the fact that the Qur'an is unique in regards to its tradition of memorization, and you should have no problem acknowledging that.

So again, when you mention the memorization of the Qur'an does not prove its validity, that's a strawman, and when you mention that Christians and Jews are just as capable of memorizing that is another strawman. Remember, we're talking scriptural preservation.

Basirah said:
It is testimony that in many areas of the Islamic world, children are forced from an early age to memorize verses of the Quran
By such standards children would be considered 'forced' to learn in virtually every school in the world, 'forced' to memorize vocabulary, laws of arithmetic, material relating to science, art, etc. Children are no more 'forced' to memorize the Qur'an than are those forced to memorize historical facts or those forced to learn a second language in bilingual countries. Needless to say, such an appeal to ridicule does not improve your case.
Source? (PS: if it is a book I would love the source the book cites).
Azami covers Uthman's mushaf in chapter seven and provides copious references to classical Islamic sources detailing what I have summarized.

Untrue.

I found the last verse of Surat at-Tauba (Repentance) with Abi Khuzaima al-Ansari, and I did not find it with anybody other than him. The verse is: 'Verily there has come to you an Apostle from amongst yourselves. It grieves him that you should receive any injury or difficulty ... (till the end of Bara'a)'. (Sahih al-Bukhari, Vol. 6, p.478).

After I covered this exact same incident and devoted such a large portion of my previous post to explaining it, it is simply beyond me how anyone could ignore or skip over the answer and then repeat the exact same question. Since you have not provided me with any reasons as to why you ignored the answer, I have no choice but to repost it:
Ansar Al-'Adl said:
Yes, this is exactly what demonstrates the point I made earlier about the witness process. You will find hadith which mention that at the end the companions found one sentence was missing and they needed witnesses for and could only find one witness for it. The question: how did the companions know this phrase was missing? Because they had memorized the Qur'an. So they knew which verses they had gotten witnesses for and which verses remained, and at the end they got 2 witnesses for every verse - meeting the criteria I previously mentioned - and they got one witness Abu Khuzaimah for this verse and it was actually the fulfillment of a prophecy because the Prophet Muhammad pbuh had told this companion that his witness was the equivalent of two witnesses and consequently he was actually known by everyone with the title of "Dhul-Shahadatain", the person who witness is that of two witnesses. So when the companions found that this was the only verse they had one witness for and yet this was the man who had been called Dhul-Shahadatain by the prophet, the realized the fulfillment of the prophecy.

Abu Bakr had not authorised him to record except what was already available [on parchment]. That is why Zaid refrained from including the final âyah of Surah Barâ'a until he came upon it in written form, even though he and his fellow Companions could recall it perfectly well from memory. (Fath al-Bari, ix:13)

I believe I have read the explanations you are speaking of and exactly what part of them convinced you? I’m honestly curious.
Well of course, in addition to what I presented, the studies from the companions which is referenced with Abu Ubaid's Fada'il. Since it featured prominently in the explanation, I'm sure you are familiar with it.

This is from Sura 10: Verse 21. Now I will show you a comparison with arrows
Both are identical. Read it out aloud (if you know how) if you don't believe me. Both of them read: idhâ lahum makrun fî ayâtinâ. Meaning: "one they conspired against Our Ayat". The difference is merely in the format in which the alif has been written, the latter having a minuscule alif due to the different convention used in the writing of the skeleton. Azami discusses orthography and the Qur'an in chapter ten and provides the following example of just how dramatic the changes in spelling conventions in the English language have been; Azami writes:

Below I have provided the verbatim title of a randomly chosen (and typically verbose) English treatise from the 17th century CE, to illustrate the orthographic changes that have taken place in under four centuries.

The Boy of Bilson: or, A True Discovery of the late notorious Impostures of certaine Romish Priests in their pretended Exorcisme, or expulsion of the Divell out of a young boy, named William Perry, sonne of Thomas Perry of Bilson, in the country of Stafford, Yeoman. Upon which occasion, hereunto is permitted A briefe Theological Discourse, by way of Caution, for the more easie discerning of such Romish spirits, and iudjing of their false pretences, both in this and the like Practices. [fn. Peter Milward, Religious Controversies of the Jacobean Age (A Survey of Printed Sources), The Scolar Press, London, 1978, p. 197. This is the actual title of a book published in 1622 CE. I have italicised the words that have different spellings than our current standard. Notice that 'judging' is written with an 'i' instead of 'j'.]

The spelling may seem laughable by our current criteria, but it is in complete accordance with the established standards of 17th century England. (Azami, p. 192)
Even today, it is well known that we have different spelling conventions in English like all other languages, including (ironically enough) the example of spelt and spelled. Now keeping in mind that the Qur'an is the oral recitation, the use of what we call 'reading aids' such as mini alifs or even color coding in modern 'tajweed qur'ans' is perfectly acceptable. Though we do not have the same dramatic spelling convention differences as seen above in english, we do have the use of the minuscule alif to alert the modern reader to the correct pronunciation of a word written with a skeleton according to the convention the he or she may not be familiar with. Whether writing the alif in a large or minuscule format, both conventions are perfectly acceptable and neither the meaning nor pronunciation change. A common example in arabic which Azami also cites is حتي and حتا both of which read hattâ and both are considered acceptable conventions.

This of course only helps in the pronunciation and is not added as an extra alif, but why change; something so perfect already, in a most perfect form in any aspect of it? If you have information, it has always been a side curiosity of mine.
As explained above, reading aid.

****2:125 in the Hafs version وَاتَّخِ ُ ذوْا “WatakhIzu” (You shall take), but in the Warsh version, it is وَاتَّخَ ُ ذوْا “WatakhAzu” (They have taken/made). One is in the future ("shall") and the other is in the past ("have"). Which should be followed, and does the other version have any Muslim followers or is it entirely irrelevant and not ONE Muslim views the one which I know you will label incorrect as holy? If one Muslim views the opposite version as correct, does it not make this statement by you: “ Muslims have forever been united on one text free of variants” as a false statement? Or am I possibly missing something that I have not taken into account?
It is a common fallacy amongst non-muslims to make the mistake of confusing the authentic Qira'ât with variants, when the reality is they are all authentic recitations of the same verse revealed to the Prophet Muhammad pbuh himself, and transmitted from him to us through mutawâtir chains of transmission. They are not 'variants' as they do not arise from textual uncertainty. This is explained by Azami on page 154 and he examines and refutes in great detail the conjecture of Godziher, Jeffery and others on the issue.

Plus, do you know of the findings of Dr Gerd R. Puin
Yep. Already answered on the forum.
http://www.islamicboard.com/27163-post2.html

I assure you that such an analogy would not make you very popular in Iran, nor in some very Shia areas.
I'm not interested in such popularity.
What a straw man!
A strawman is a sham argument set up to be defeated. Please show me by what form of reasoning or logic my analogy can be considered a straw man fallacy!
Can you clarify your views on Shia Islam, and blatantly tell us that it is not “real” Islam already which it seems you are hinting.
As I already said, visit the sectarian section on the forum and you will recieve all the details. Islam entails following what was revealed by Allah in the Qur'an, as it was explained by the Prophet and understood by his companions who were the direct recipients of the message. I have no qualms in pointing out, in an appropriate manner, the deviation of those who deviate from this. This has been done in the sectarian section of the forum.

Regards
 
Greetings rav,
If such overwhelming evidence was provided in books which proved his arguments utterly wrong…
Sure, bring forward such evidence or research and then we can reevaluate his conclusions.
Unture. Specific prayers must be said in Hebrew. The Torah recitation must also be in Hebrew.
I said 'prayers in Judaism can be done in any language (as noted in the Talmud)'
The truth is that you can pray in any language you understand[5], but there is a tremendous advantage to praying in Hebrew. [LINK]
You mention a few points about Judaism but at the end of the day you admit
Rav said:
Ansar said:
Where in Judaism do you have the entire congregation listening to the Rabbi reciting the ENTIRE Torah cover to cover from memory??
That is not a tradition of Judaism and Judaism does not encourage such practices. The reading of the law from the scroll however and the meticulous way of correcting the slightest mistakes 4 times a week, every week, every year is our tradition.
So if it is NOT a tradition in Judaism, then why make the parallel where it does not exist? And if your readings are from writing as opposed to reciting from memory then it you still have only a textual tradition! The muslim prayers entail recitation from memory which is NOT a textual tradition, but something ADDITIONAL to their textual tradition.

rav said:
ansar said:
When Uthman ordered that all other copies/parchments be either burned or erased it was because such copies were neither verified nor authorized under the consensus of the companions and consequently they could be written according to a specific dialect which would lead to confusion and bickering or they could even contain the odd scribal error which could also lead to confusion.
Does the Hadith say this?
Yes. Everything I am mentioning is based on the summation of all the references from the Ahadith which are quoted in detail in Azami's book. The issue was the possibility of future confusion and that could be due to the two things I mentioned in my quote.
My minhag opposes the practice.
A red herring. It makes absolutely no difference whether you agree or not with what the Rabbi said, the point is that it is considered the appropriate practice by Muslims and evidently Jews as well, though not all of them. If this was just an FYI you were providing on Judaism, then let's leave that to the comparative religion section please.
Could you provide a summary?
That would be what I said on this point:
Suffice it to say that the presence of the teachers alongside each official copy, the ubiquitious recitation and memorization amongst muslims, and the countless other copies available for cross checking are the very reasons why even the slightest scribal error is immediately and outright rejected by the Muslim populace.
...
It would only be a case in point if an error had gone unnoticed and resulted in a variant text amongst Muslims. But Muslims have forever been united on one text free of variants and even the slightest mistake could be recognized and rejected even by a child.

I would suggest reading the narration again.
The narration says that in later times when Ibn Mas'ood was in Syria an intoxicated man came up to him and challenged this famous companion on a verse of the Qur'an he recited which clearly blew his cover and they realized he was drunk and for that he was punished.
An example of a man lying about memorizing a verse appears in the Hadith showing it could have been possible if no alcohol was smelt that the verse he claimed here heard may have somehow been compiled into the Quran.
No, what it shows is that if he hadn't done something as ludicrous as openly challenge a verse of the Qur'an he may have stumbled home with his intoxication unnoticed. He never said anything about memorization nor did he even claim to know the ayat, nor did he provide a verse he claimed to have heard, he just said Ibn Mas'ood was wrong. Any person this happens to would have simply had to verify the matter with some Qur'an teachers or manuscripts, and then they would see if they were wrong or right. The Qur'an was already memorized, written and compiled so nothing this intoxicated man said would have any effect.
The dismissal of all evidence which does not suit you does not strengthen your argument in my humble opinion.
If you don't understand or are not aware of the science of Mustalah al-Hadîth of the principles and methodology for the gradation and authentication of hadith, then please just say so. If you wish to learn about the different types of collections of narrations (musnad, jami, sahih, etc.) I am happy to enlighten you but it is not appropriate to resort to ad hominem attacks, especially when I stated that they were rejected on account of their weak chains of transmission, not because they 'did not suit me'! I would hope that we could maintain a higher degree of objectivity and respect than that. I even mentioned the names of the hadith scholars who have investigated the chains of transmission and had consequently rejected the reports as spurious.
what sect does one convert to when converting to Islam, if they are to be saved from this ceaseless place of fire which burns the “unbelievers”?
Islam entails following what was revealed by Allah in the Qur'an, as it was explained by the Prophet and understood by his companions who were the direct recipients of the message. I am fully confident that a convert who researches the issue themselves will be able to see the correct path of following Islam. If you want to know the sectarian differences, as I said before it takes more than just a brisk answer so please visit the sectarian section.
Not an applicable argument. Judaism does not contend nor even endeavor to convert non-Jews, nor do they believe in an eternal hell for all the “unbelievers”
A red herring once again. Irrespective of your beliefs on salvation, the truths of Judaism and Christianity are mutually exclusive (eg. trinity, vicarious atonement, etc.) and hence an answer as to which beliefs are veracious entails a much more involved discussion than a brisk answer.

If they are online, could you please post the Arabic commentaries? I can get them translated so they do not have to be in English. Thank you in advance.
If the references are in Sahih Bukhari you can look them up in the commentary of Ibn Hajr al-Asqalani here:
http://hadith.al-islam.com/Display/Display.asp?hnum=1&doc=0#Desc1

Regards
 
Mashallah Qatada you have given wonderful proof.All paraise is to the one who has preserved his holy book and saved it from distortions like the ones in the BIBLE and TORAH of today.May Allah, the Almighty guide the Jews and Christians and every other disbeliever to the truth and light of Islam.Ameen
 
I think the cat says it best...

mban1864l-1.jpg
peace!
 
Shalom (Peace) Ansar Al-‘Adl, a few things which I desire to address in this post.

Sure, bring forward such evidence or research and then we can reevaluate his conclusions.

I do not think that you understood the premise of the first paragraph of my post. Here is what I wrote:

I understand that, and if I ever have enough free time I will look into reading the book, but your post said the following: “ First, let me just point out that we should be referring to scholarly, academic sources that provide the references and research for all conclusions.” All I did, was point out to you, that we could very well refer to scholarly, academic sources from the scholarly academia such as Gabriel Sawma that have presented research backing their opinions regarding the Quran. They’re research and conclusions although you may deny it are not of the intention of “debunking” Islam, but instead wish to study the origins of a book which so many revere. If such overwhelming evidence was provided in books which proved his arguments utterly wrong… if such “refutations” were existent than I see no reason why he would not reevaluate his positions regarding the origins and the development of the Quran. Do you think the intentions of the academia are suspect because I would not want to quote a book which has an agenda, so if any author I ask you about is suspect in his intention, I would love to know this before I read to much into their material.​

If you re-read the above, you will see that I was not speaking of reevaluating the conclusions of M. M. Azami. What I spoke about is that the conclusions that M. M. Azami draws in his books were so significant and clearly refuted any other theory on the origin and development to shreds. Than the scholarly academic community, would not continue to rely and structure theories; that were so easy to refute. If such “refutations” which you claim are available were existent and essentially (as your claiming) debunked every single theory the academic community holds (that contradicts Islamic beliefs about the Quran’s development), than I see no reason why the academic community would not reevaluate their positions on the Quran.

I said 'prayers in Judaism can be done in any language (as noted in the Talmud)'

I understand what you said Ansar, the problem is that it is a fictional statement. All prayers cannot be done in any language noted in the Talmud. In the Talmud, you will find that there are specific prayers that must be said in Hebrew, the language of the Torah. So therefore, yes some prayers may be said in English or any language, but it is false to say that all prayers can be said in these languages. Specific prayers can only be said in Hebrew and this is said in the Talmud.

So if it is NOT a tradition in Judaism, then why make the parallel where it does not exist?

The practice of children memorizing verses of the Torah is not a tradition within Judaism. However the parallel exists for this reason: In every generation the Torah has been memorized by Rabbi’s and Talmidei Chachamim (Knowledgable Torah scholars). I am sure many more Muslim children can be found, and no one is denying that, however, in every generation we have had Jews memorize the Torah from Jewish communities that range from Yemen, Iran, Israel, France, Morocco, Russia, Lithuania, and Germany. The practice still remains although it is no longer as wide spread in our day because the ease of printing the text of the Torah. I can refer to you books (in Hebrew) that tell stories of thousands of our beloved Rabbis and their disciples in Europe who memorized the Torah because of fear that the Germans would burn every Torah and Judaism would cease to exist. The above has no part in the actual topic we are discussing; I am just correcting misstatements about Judaism that you hold.

Yes. Everything I am mentioning is based on the summation of all the references from the Ahadith which are quoted in detail in Azami's book. The issue was the possibility of future confusion and that could be due to the two things I mentioned in my quote.

Could you at least summarize Azami’s positions on a few of the topics, or at least provide the references to certain Hadith that he cites in his book, so I could look them up?

A red herring. It makes absolutely no difference whether you agree or not with what the Rabbi said, the point is that it is considered the appropriate practice by Muslims and evidently Jews as well, though not all of them. If this was just an FYI you were providing on Judaism, then let's leave that to the comparative religion section please.

Not a red herring I am afraid. It is not “I” who agree or disagree, it is how the Rabbi formed the conclusion that you can ever burn a holy object like a Torah scroll. It says without doubt or need for interpretation in the Talmud (source: Moed Kattan 26a) that you may not burn a Torah scroll, or any book with Torah in it, and if you see one burning you must immediately tear your clothes (a practice associated with mourning). I was not the one that brought up the practice of burning holy objects in Judaism, you were. So therefore, I felt the need to correct a statement made by you and a Rabbi that this practice is allowed, or even tolerated within Judaism when the opinion on Judaism that you quoted is one that utterly disagrees with what the Talmud says on the matter.

That would be what I said on this point:
Suffice it to say that the presence of the teachers alongside each official copy, the ubiquitious recitation and memorization amongst muslims, and the countless other copies available for cross checking are the very reasons why even the slightest scribal error is immediately and outright rejected by the Muslim populace.
...
It would only be a case in point if an error had gone unnoticed and resulted in a variant text amongst Muslims. But Muslims have forever been united on one text free of variants and even the slightest mistake could be recognized and rejected even by a child.

If that is the summary of what his argument is in his book than let me ask you this:

1. What Hadith does he quote to support the notion of “ubiquitous” recitation and memorization amongst Muslims at this time with the “countless” copies available for cross checking, when the Quran was first being compiled?

2. Do you have a scanner where you could possibly scan and send to me the pages that deal with this issue that he “refutes” and the references to the Hadith that he provides?

The narration says that in later times when Ibn Mas'ood was in Syria an intoxicated man came up to him and challenged this famous companion on a verse of the Qur'an he recited which clearly blew his cover and they realized he was drunk and for that he was punished.

Well I have a few questions now: What Hadith can I find which say this could never have happened again; i.e. some random person saying he heard a verse. What Hadith can I find says that every verse had a text reference written down on a paper of some type and this was a requirement?

Islam entails following what was revealed by Allah in the Qur'an, as it was explained by the Prophet and understood by his companions who were the direct recipients of the message. I am fully confident that a convert who researches the issue themselves will be able to see the correct path of following Islam. If you want to know the sectarian differences, as I said before it takes more than just a brisk answer so please visit the sectarian section.

I’m afraid so many people have drawn conclusions from the Quran and created their own “sects” and the fact that holy books to one side are labeled forgeries by other sides, reveal that it is indeed not that simple.

A red herring once again. Irrespective of your beliefs on salvation, the truths of Judaism and Christianity are mutually exclusive (eg. trinity, vicarious atonement, etc.) and hence an answer as to which beliefs are veracious entails a much more involved discussion than a brisk answer.

Judaism and Christianity are not of the same religions. The two religions are much more different than the Sunni-Shiite dispute, so therefore again I say that your correlation is erroneous. Judaism believes all do not have to convert to it, while Islam makes the claim that the entire world must “submit” to the teachings of Mohammad. Therefore, what Judaism believes in respect to Christianity is something entirely different. The only reason such a topic was even brought up, is to show that a group of Muslims, which make up over one hundred million, believe in something completely different than you do, so it may be “a red herring” in your opinion, but to me, it is an honest inquiry of mine.

If the references are in Sahih Bukhari you can look them up in the commentary of Ibn Hajr al-Asqalani here:
http://hadith.al-islam.com/Display/D...=1&doc=0#Desc1

Thank you very much. I appreciate it.
 
hi rav,
What I spoke about is that the conclusions that M. M. Azami draws in his books were so significant and clearly refuted any other theory on the origin and development to shreds. Than the scholarly academic community, would not continue to rely and structure theories; that were so easy to refute. If such “refutations” which you claim are available were existent and essentially (as your claiming) debunked every single theory the academic community holds (that contradicts Islamic beliefs about the Quran’s development), than I see no reason why the academic community would not reevaluate their positions on the Quran.
1. Many of the orientalists who devised these elaborate theories which are refuted by Azami are now deceased so they don't have the opportunity to 'reevaluate'.
2. You say 'academic community' but are you really including Muslim scholars who are experts in the historical compilation and preservation of the Qur'an? Azami is not someone challenging the 'academic community' he is part of it as are thousands of Muslim scholars who have conducted extensive research in Ulûm al-Qur'an. The problem is that you say 'academic community' but what is clearly implied is 'western orientalist non-muslim community'. You are really referring to a restricted community of non-muslims many of whom hold - as Azami points out - the fallacious notion that Muslims cannot represent themselves and must be represented by western scholarship.
3. You neglect that every critic is the product of his or her environment and many of those who have formed these theories on the Qur'an write from a missionary backdrop with a vested interest and underlying motives for rejecting the account provided by Muslim scholarship. You neglect that in addition to our rational nature, human beings have an overwhelming emotional nature which entails that one does not always accept the most rational option.
4. How many of the modern proponents of such theories have studied Azami's material and commented on it? Why don't you be specific and ask who you are waiting for to change their mind instead of ambiguously referring to a so-called 'academic community'?
I understand what you said Ansar, the problem is that it is a fictional statement.
No, it is not and I even provided you with a reference which stated:
'
The truth is that you can pray in any language you understand[5], but there is a tremendous advantage to praying in Hebrew. [LINK]
And please show me where I used the word 'all' or 'every' in my statement about the Jewish prayers. What I said is identical to what I referenced.
The practice of children memorizing verses of the Torah is not a tradition within Judaism. However the parallel exists for this reason: In every generation the Torah has been memorized by Rabbi’s and Talmidei Chachamim (Knowledgable Torah scholars).
Again you mix issues and then go off on tangents which even you admit have no place in this discussion on the preservation of the Qur'an. You said yourself that the reading is from script, hence a textual tradition. For Muslims the memorization of scripture will never be decreased due to the role of print because recitation from memory is an integral component of the muslim prayers.
Could you at least summarize Azami’s positions on a few of the topics
That is what I have been doing this entire discussion!
or at least provide the references to certain Hadith that he cites in his book, so I could look them up?
For the point we were discussing, I gave a couple of references to Fath al-Bari which you can look up.
So therefore, I felt the need to correct a statement made by you and a Rabbi that this practice is allowed, or even tolerated within Judaism when the opinion on Judaism that you quoted is one that utterly disagrees with what the Talmud says on the matter.
It makes no difference what you think about the Rabbi's opinion. I never said this was the definitive ruling on the issue in Judaism, in fact I specifically said:
Ansar Al-'Adl said:
Yes!! This is considered a dignified way of disposing of God's words. And this should not surprise you because many Jews do it too!! To quote one Rabbi:
So your above comment that I spoke about what is or what is not allowed in Judaism is a manifest untruth. What I said is that this is considered a dignified way of disposing it, not only by Muslims but many Jews as well. If you personally do not find it dignified or believe that the correct ruling in Judaism is that it is not considered dignified, it makes NO DIFFERENCE. My statement stands exactly the same.
1. What Hadith does he quote to support the notion of “ubiquitous” recitation and memorization amongst Muslims at this time with the “countless” copies available for cross checking, when the Quran was first being compiled?
He provides some 38 references for completed memorization of specific companions and at least fifty others for ubiquitous recitation and teaching. Its funny because it is almost as if you seem to hold the imaginative notion that his entire argument is constructed on one or two hadith that say word-for-word his argument, whereas the reality is that it is a well-researched summation of thousands of references, page upon page with nearly every other sentence containing a reference.
2. Do you have a scanner where you could possibly scan and send to me the pages that deal with this issue that he “refutes” and the references to the Hadith that he provides?
I'm afraid I do not have a scanner to send you the pages, nor do I have any method of uploading the book onto the forum for your perusal. If you really want to read the book, you will most likely have to obtain it yourself.
Well I have a few questions now: What Hadith can I find which say this could never have happened again
This is just like what I mentioned earlier. By their very nature, Hadith, and all historical narration for that matter, talk about what DID happen, not what did NOT happen, let alone what could not happen!
What Hadith can I find says that every verse had a text reference written down on a paper of some type and this was a requirement?
I already quoted this for you from fath al-Bari with the reference; you can also check Mukhtasar Târîkh Dimashq of Ibn Manzur, xvi:171-2 for a quotation from Uthman where he lays out this criteria, as well as Masâhif of Ibn Abi Dawud pp. 23-24.
...reveal that it is indeed not that simple.
Exactly, a simple, 'brisk' answer will not do justice to the topic so instead of asking for one please go and visit the sectarian section yourself so you can educate yourself about the differences. I am amazed at how many times I have to repeat this.
Judaism and Christianity are not of the same religions.
I never said they were, in fact I said the complete opposite!! The truths held by each are mutually exclusive as are those held by heretical muslim sects. In both cases, it requires a little more research and investigation than simply asking, "which is right" and expecting the answer to be spoonfed to you in a simple bite-size format. If you are interested, you can begin your research with the sectarian section of the forum. If not, then let's not waste time playing cat-and-mosque asking for a simple answer to a major sectarian rift and then turning away when offered a source to look into the matter. You are looking for a simple answer while simultaneously rejecting the existence of any answer on the grounds of simplicity.
it is an honest inquiry of mine.
Great, so check out the sectarian section.

Warm Regards
 
The Qur'an itself is not just a book. It is a lifestyle and history of old civilizations. It is science and philosophy. it is a complex books and well written.

So is the Torah. The Torah is a great book that covers every aspect of life. Judaism is, and always has been a total complete way of life. I have a friend who converted to Judaism and made Aliyah to Israel, her name is Elisheva and I have never seen someone so happy as her.

As for "science" in the quran.. I laugh at people who calim that the quran has science.. You know, I rally do.They pick and choose what they accept as scieence and ignore everything else. Like that the sun and moon obey humans.. Um, any scientific proof behind that? Or that a tree was crying because mohammad would not preach under it.. LOL. Please show me some science that shows trees can think, and are smart enoguh to cry.

That being said though, I still do not find science significant for any religion. What some muslims have to realize is that their quran was NOT made to be a science book. That was not the intention of the quran. If it was made to be a science book, then
1. Early tafsir would have wirtten about it.
2. If it was scientific, it would be clear. People wouldn't just now(for the past 30 or so years) be commenteing on it. They would have been commenting on it back then.
3. If it was a science book, it would clearly show science. you wouldn't have to dig deep to find it.

If you read some tafisr from early times, you will see that people thought totally different then they do now. A common early islamic belief was that we were on a fish, and that the mountains had pegs in them to keep the fish from flopping LOL.

The qurans message is not a message of science. It is a message of Faith. Same with the Bible, and other religious books. Although I do not think the quran is from God, I know that the quran certainly was not made by mohammad to be some science book. And when you try and incorporate science in it, you just 1. Humiliate yourself and 2. Take away the whole message of quran
But yeah, the thing with evolution that bothers me is how can we resemble monkeys and apes almost 90% of their organism and Adam was "supposedly" the first human being. It is kinda hard to know since the Qur'an and modern science only hint clues and not the whole pictures and everything is sketchy

I can't tell if Adam was once a specimen with half a human body and half a fish tail like a mermaid. Who knows? nobody.

I see fossils and i see preserved life form. Probably evolution is alive but probably God is creating as we speak and puts things in earth without evolutionary origin. Who knows?
I agree that evoution is a very stupid belief.

Science changes all the time. And almost everything in science is a THEORY. It can not be 100% proven.

It is mentioned in the Qur'an that man was created from water. That is evolution theory right there in the Qur'an. It is also said in the Qur'an that some civilization was cursed to be monkeys. Please correct me if i am wrong, as i forgot the sourse verses when i read it.

The quran also says that humans were made form semen(but how was semen there when there were no humans) and from dust, and from clay, and just all kinds of different things.
 

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