Grace Seeker
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Well, I'm going to show my ignorance here. There are many historians and other authors of that age that I only know my one name (or one name and a descripter) -- Philo, Pliny, Julius Caesar, Eusebius, Tacitus, Suetonius, Virgil, Ovid, Cicero to name a few, but that doesn't mean that they only had one name, only that I know them by that. On the other hand while most Romans had two names, Flavius Josephus is the only Jew from the era that I can think of that I know by two names (and he was known to hang out with Romans).On the other hand, almost all scholars and historians in the first century signed their names to the texts they wrote, and many cited their sources as well.
I am quite aware of that.The names of the gospel authors do not appear on any of the early texts we have of the gospels.
And many modern scholars support the church's traditional authorship.They are the invention of later church fathers. We have no idea who wrote them and many modern scholars doubt the church's traditional authorship.
Yeah, right here in my desk drawer. Come over and I'll show it to you. Ink's a little faded, but you can still make it out if you hold it under good light.Where is this testimony? do you happen to have an original, signed copy?
You want my theory? To the first question I really have no idea. Maybe because they weren't producing letters, but providing general information. But, personally, yes, I'm a little surprised that we don't see such signatures.So why didn't they sign their names? Why are their gospels both highly derivitive of each other (appearing to cut-and-paste from earlier manuscripts) and highly contradictory of each other?
It is only Matthew, Mark and Luke that appear to be so highly derivative. John is clearly an independent work. I think that they appear that way because they were in fact highly derivative of each other, or of some common but lost source. Whether that source was the reputed Q document or oral tradition or some of both I don't know and I don't think anyone can today conclusively say. But most certainly, before the creation of any written document of any form, even a Q document (if such existed), there was at the very least a corpus of stories with regard to Jesus that had accumulated out of the preaching of the apostles. These would have been the common cloth of which Mark, Luke, and Matthew would have each produced their gospel accounts. But each writing in their own way, with their own audience in mind, and with different access to this source material would have produced a slightly different document.
Here is the thing, with regard to Mark and Luke, their documents were certainly early enough that the first generation of the church that would have personally known Jesus and been witness to these events was still alive to have repudiated them if they were presenting false testimony with regard to him.
And if you suppose that these were all later, then you eliminate the book of Acts as having been an early document as well, for it had the same author as Luke. And you eliminate the idea that Paul was a historical figure as well. Why not just have all of the NT created after the church was already in existence and have someone name George, or perhaps George and his friends Harry and Bill be the authrors of everything. Of course, then you have to explain who it is that Harry, George and Bill came to be quoted by people in the early second century who knew them as Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, Paul, Peter, James, and Jude. And you have to explain how some of the things that George and his friends wrote later were found in first century liturgies used by the church. And you have to explain where the church came from, if the ideas it was built on weren't themselves composed until a later time. And you have to explain how it is that forms of the church were spread not just through the Roman empire, but parts of the former Persian empire as well, and that they had these same stories. No, that sort of theory, which is what I hear you basically proposing in saying "They are the invention of later church fathers.", seems even less credible than authorships you choose to reject.
And I agree with you as well. I think it is because atheists have a less vested interest in the success of failure of Christianity as a religion, and thus can view it dispassionately. It results in a more objective investigation which leads to better critiques. Of course, liberal Christian scholars themselves are some of atheists best friends in critiqueing the origins of Christianity.I agree with you here, what the OP said is nonsense. Muslims really aren't as good at criticizing Christianity as us atheists.![]()
Hey, when that's what we got, that's what we got. (Other than that paper I have in my desk drawer, that is.) The New Testament is still better documented and authenticated than the works of Homer, Sophocles, Plato, and Aristotle (btw, know any of their last names?) or even Julius Caesar. Yet no one doubts their existence or authorship. I think it is just because it is religion that people get so excited and antagonistic about it.They knew a guy who knew a guy who knew a guy who knew Jesus.
Hey, I didn't know that. Learned somethig new today. Thanks!Except first-person plural was a stylistic convention in Hellenistic literature when describing sea journeys, which is exactly when it starts in Acts.
Which, accepting the account, as you do if you accept that he was really blinded by a talking light, was in fact Jesus talking to him. That's why I say that Paul met Jesus. Being a Christian, I believe not just that God is real, but that there is also a spiritual world beyond our 5 basic sense that is also every bit as real as the one you see, hear, tasts, smell, and touch. And I believe, based on the testimony of this passage that you cited, that Paul had an encounter with Jesus in this other dimension of reality that is normally foreign to us, but which "in Christ" we all have access to. It might be foreign to your way of thinking, but it is perfectly compatible with mine.That's quite a stretch. He was blinded by a talking light.
What? Now you are talking nonsense. Just exactly who/what was Paul persecuting if he wasn't persecuting the church before he became a Christian? What was it that the people who responded to Peter's preaching in Acts 2 joined?What? The Christian church did not exist before Paul.
Of course. But for instance the Didache, which is a compilation of rules and rituals for use in worship in the church that is dated between 50-100 AD and by some to as early as 40 AD (that would be earlier than the earliers NT writing), it includes baptismal formularies that specifiically mention that those joining the church are to be baptized in the three-fold name of the "Father, Son, and Holy Spirit". I don't think that you will find those words used by any religion other than Christianity. I use it to debunk the idea that Christianity and the worship of Jesus was "invented" by Paul, because these things are present before Paul's first letter, perhaps even before he began his missionary journeys.Baptism obviously predates Christianity, it is similar to the rituals in many Roman mystery religions.
Well, theology is often about choosing the appropriate word, because, as you just testified to, it is semantics -- i.e. the study or science of meaning in language. I would call Jesus God incarnate. But God-man sounds like some sort of centaur-like beast or a Hercules-type myth, that is not what we mean to imply, so we stay away from any sort of language that might have those connotations to it.Now I think you're just arguing semantics. I'd certainly call Jesus (in Christianity) a divine man-god. He's both 100% man and 100% god, what else would you call him?
Depending on which defintion of demagogue you use:Though Paul certainly does appear to be a demagogue charlatan.![]()
1 : a leader who makes use of popular prejudices and false claims and promises in order to gain power
2 : a leader championing the cause of the common people in ancient times
I might agree with the use of the term demagogue. But I don't agree either that Paul was a charlatan or even that he appears as a charlatan. Paul certainly suffered enough that he no apparent gains from switching from a persecuter to a promoter of Christainity. If anything he lost the life he had before. And since he had multiple opportunities to simply walk away from it, I would guess that he was a sincere believer, so how could he be termed a charlatan? Now, if you had said an over-zealous blowhard...I've often thought of Paul as sort of arrogant in this way.