Do you mean that he was existed before even Adam was there? and before they "Adam and his wife" "sinned"?
Yes, that's what I meant.
Currently, I am reading the Bible, When I came to those vreses.....
Jesus answered, "If I honor Myself, My honor is nothing. It is My Father who honors Me, of whom you say that He is your God
[John 8:54]
are they equal?
if one is giving the honor to someone else, then it means that the second did not have it from the beginning thats why he was "given" that "honor"
Well, perhaps I can approach this inquiry by saying that the knowledge that God has a Son is what is called in the New Testament a hidden truth. Meaning, if God didn't send his Son into the world to redeem us the nature of God would have remained a mystery. And perhaps I can also quote Jesus here in St. John further elaborating on this:
'For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgement unto the Son:
That all men should honor the Son, even as they honour the Father. He that honoureth not the Son honoureth not the Father which hath sent him.' St. John 5:22-23.
and..................
Let no one say when he is tempted, "I am tempted by God"; for God cannot be tempted by evil, nor does He Himself tempt anyone.
[James 1:13]
one can be tempted while the others cant, so are they equal??
Well, I'm only a baby in Christ myself, and not well developed, for varying reasons. But perhaps this is a good passage of scripture that relates to your inquiry.
'Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:
Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.' Phillipians 2: 5-8.
Christ was tempted at all points as we are in his human nature but he also had a divine nature. The Bible also says that henceforth we know Jesus not after the flesh, or his human nature.
and.....................
You have heard Me say to you, 'I am going away and coming back to you.' If you loved Me, you would rejoice because I said, 'I am going to the Father,' for My Father is greater than I.
[John 14:28]
one is greater than the other!
Well, this is what I found:
Perhaps more than any other, this verse has been quoted by non-Trinitarians as proof that Jesus could not be true God. In the view of those denying the Trinity, if the Father is "greater" than Jesus, Jesus must be teaching that He is ontologically inferior to the Father. A careful consideration of this verse in context, however, reveals that such a view in untenable.
As Jesus approaches the Cross, He begins to speak more plainly about leaving His disciples and returning to His Father. When the disciples display a self-centered - though natural - response, Jesus reproves them: "If you loved Me, you would have rejoiced because I go to the Father." But why should they rejoice when Jesus goes to His Father? Is it because Jesus will be happier there? Or because He will be past His suffering on the Cross? These would be answers we might give a loved one who, upon hearing that we had a terminal illness, cried out, "But what will I do without you?" What we would certainly not say in such a circumstance is: "Rejoice for me that I'm going to God, because God is a superior being than I am." Such a remark would provide little comfort (since obviously God is superior to any created being) and instead would bespeak an intolerable hubris - as though we were so wonderful that our loved ones would actually confuse us for God Himself!. If Jesus' disciples understood Him to be a mere man, or a lesser divinity of some sort, as non-Trinitarians tell us, reprimanding them in this way would would seem almost a non-sequitor. "We know God is a greater being than you are, Master," the disciples could reasonably respond, "but why should we rejoice in such an obvious truth?"
The word translated "greater" (meizon) does not mean greater in the sense of a higher type of being, but rather greater in the sense of position or authority. This is the meaning cited by modern Greek lexicons, and is exampled by dozens of Biblical and extra-Biblical sources (see Grammatical Analysis, below). Jesus repeats the phrase, "A servant is not greater than his Master," twice in this same discourse (John 13:16; 15:20). The same Greek word (meizon) occurs in each of these verses. No one would suggest that a servant is a lesser being than his Master. A Master is "greater" than a servant because he occupies a position of greater status, dignity, and authority. If we let these other examples guide us, Jesus is saying that the Father is "greater" because the Father's position in Heaven is one of greater dignity and authority than the Son occupies on earth. This meaning, then, makes clear why the disciples should rejoice. The Son is returning to the right hand of the Father, to the glory He had with the Father before His existence on earth (John 17:5). He had voluntarily humbled Himself in coming to earth (Philippians 2:6), taking the form of a servant (doulos, the same word Jesus uses in John 13:16 and 15:20). Now Jesus was returning to the Father to regain His former glory, where He could accomplish all the wonderful things promised to the disciples in His final discourse. If the disciples had considered the import of Jesus' words, they would have realized the exaltation that awaited the Son, and would have rejoiced.
Thus, there is little contextual or lexical support for the idea that Jesus is teaching His ontological inferiority to the Father in this verse. He is speaking in the highest terms of the positional greatness of the Father - a position to which Jesus is soon to return, there to be an even greater blessing to the disciples and an assurance of their own paths to Heaven.
and......................
But I want you to know that the head of every man is Christ, the head of woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.
[1 Corinthians 11:3]
one is the head of the other
so, are they still equal?? I will appreciate any explanation for those verses
I think my quoted passage answers this question as well. I guess I could just say from my own understanding that God is a God of order.
SAYA;[B said:
1125737and who did baptize him[/B]? Is'nt he supposed to be perfect "like a god" and be already baptized from the beginning? or may be I missed something here? explain plz
John the Baptist baptized Jesus. At first he didn't want to do it, feeling that he was unworthy (and he was) but Jesus told him to suffer it to be so now, for it becometh them to fulfill all righteousness.
Ok, I hope I answered your questions good enough.
oh: can we really take this square so easily? if so, then they are all equal! which cant be logical at all