Not unless he can implement Sharia.
on what basis you are saying this...?
Not unless he can implement Sharia.
on what basis you are saying this...?
Not unless he can implement Sharia.
On what basis do you think it's okay to rule by other than Sharia?
I am not making any claim but you and according to Islamic rulings claimant has to prove his claim with evidences.
My claim is the standard one, yours is the weird one. Why do you think it isn't compulsory to rule by Sharia?
So you've no proof....!
Most important point is that Islamic rulings and teachings are applied to Muslims, not to kafir.
My claim is the standard one, yours is the weird one. Why do you think it isn't compulsory to rule by Sharia?
The fact that you're such an experienced member and are genuinely questioning whether or not Muslims have to rule by Sharia is really quite baffling:
http://www.islamweb.net/en/fatwa/384595/impermissible-to-resort-for-to-man-made-laws-for-judgment
https://islamqa.info/en/answers/282538/definition-of-shareeah-sharia-fiqh-and-usool-al-fiqh
[TABLE="class: grid, width: 100%, align: center"]
[TR][TD]Islam web - English Fatwa | Articles | Quran Recitation | Prayer Times | News
Islamweb - the largest Islamic and cultural content on the Internet for the users contain fatwa, quran, articles , fiqh , lectures , prayer times , about islam etc...[/TD][/TR][/TABLE]
- - - Updated - - -
When did I say otherwise?
Most important point of islamization of Muslim countries instead of non Muslim countries is often forgotten.
It wonders me to see the scholars who promptly issues fatwas never dare to ask their rulers to break their friendship with non Muslim countries
Double standard is against Islamic teachings.
Quoted fatwas have nothing to do with this issue is being discussed.
Again, what has that got to do with anything I said? All I said was Muslims cannot work for any government institution that doesn't rule by Sharia and that we must abide by Sharia ourselves.
I don't think you read many fatwas.
Oh the irony!
No, your points have nothing to do with what is being discussed. I spoke about how Muslims are obliged to abide by Sharia, you either didn't believe me or misunderstood what I said, I provided evidence, and then you went on some Tablighi Jamaat rant about cleaning up our own house first. There is no strong correlation between my point and yours.
Read your quoted fatwas again, I reiterate these fatwas have nothing to do with ''a Muslim can't be a ruler of a non Muslim country''
''Does going to non-sharia courts in the presence of sharia courts take one out of the folds of Islam if it is done out of disobedience?''
and fatwa of islamqa is about:
''What is the difference between fiqh and sharia and what is usool ul fiqh?''
can you give ONLY ONE specific dalil from shariah...?
I don't follow scholars blindly.
I just found a passage from Quran saying something that, "whoever believes that Quran is created, has committed disbelief". I was thinking that Islamic sharia is created by God and not by humans. So, what I think is still disbelief? Does that mean, these Islamic sharia which we know, always existed and had no beginning nor end?
I asked you specific dalil from Quran and hadith and you quoted fatwas of scholars which , invariably, are based on subjectivity.
why you neglect these following fatwas:
then don't waste your time.No they're not, they give clear-cut evidence and their position can be pretty easily deduced if you read the Quran and Sunnah in detail.
[FONT="]“And so judge (you O Muhammad صلى الله عليه وسلم) among them by what Allaah has revealed and follow not their vain desires, but beware of them lest they turn you (O Muhammad صلى الله عليه وسلم) far away from some of that which Allaah has sent down to you. And if they turn away, then know that Allaah’s Will is to punish them for some sins of theirs. And truly, most of men are Faasiqoon (rebellious and disobedient to Allaah).[/FONT]
[FONT="]50. Do they then seek the judgement of (the days of) Ignorance? And who is better in judgement than Allaah for a people who have firm Faith”[/FONT]
[FONT="][al-Maa'idah 5:49-50].[/FONT]
Again, you're showing that you clearly haven't paid attention to what I said. I said it is haram for Muslims to work for a government that does not rule by Sharia unless they are able to implement Sharia within that government. Voting has nothing to do with what I said.
Either deal with my point or just stop wasting my time with your red herrings.
quoted ayat have nothing to do with your claim
GIVE THE SPECIFIC EVIDENCE TO PROVE YOUR CLAIM.
:facepalm:
I gave you multiple pieces of evidence from reputable scholars who provided ayat to back their fatawa that Muslims must abide by Sharia, and that to do otherwise is haram.
You gave me two completely random Imams, both of which only said voting is halal.
Not only did you not give a source anywhere near as reputable as mine, but your source also didn't contradict my point. I think it's best you save yourself from further embarrassment and stop replying.
Fatwa of scholars is merely their opinion, so here reliability is more important than reputability.
Yes, just like the incorrect Fataawaa on aqiidah you posted in this thread. Good to know you have come to realize your mistake.
If quoted Quranic ayat or ahadith don't discuss any particular issue isn't considered as specific dalil, maximum it can be taken as an implication.
Every Muslim has to abide by Islamic shariah within his individual capacity. Who can deny it..?
According to fatwas of some scholars Democracy is kufr, voting is shirk but this kufr and shirk become halal if a Muslim becomes a ruler of a democratic non Muslim state, intends to change the whole system, implement shariah in the state....????
.
Follow along with the video below to see how to install our site as a web app on your home screen.
Note: This feature may not be available in some browsers.