god doesn't haven no son nor needs one, don't know whats wrong people for belittling god to a human with the need for children
You mean it's just one God who have three forms (if I can say that) ?Therefore, the Old Testament does reveal the Christian concept of the Godhead, with God being one God, consisting of three persons. How can God simultaneously exist as both singular and plural? It is a logical impossibility if God were restricted to the three dimensions of space and one dimension of time of our physical universe. However, the attributes of God, given by the Bible, provide a reasonable explanation of how this paradox can be resolved.
You mean it's just one God who have three forms (if I can say that) ?
God doesn't need creation. He doesn't need humanity. He doesn't need a religion for people to worship Him. He doesn't need non believers. He doesn't need people praying to Him, remembering Him, reading about Him. God doesn't need anything. I don't bother to question what God needs; God clearly does not need anything. Indeed, the very essence of questioning what God needs is foolish and actually a waste of time. What is better is thinking about what God has already established; He doesn't need anything, He doesn't need humanity or books about Him or a Son, but He clearly want these things. (well, in Christianity, anyway.)
Surprise, I actually agree with you (or at least as far as I quoted I do). But, to say that Jesus is God the Son is not -- to the Christian way of thinking -- to say that God has partners nor even that God has taken up a Son.True, god is free of needs, but what we need to understand is the qualities of god, Allah, he is one, alone, self sufficient and free of partners...
Yes and no. Certainly you are correct in saying that it is just one God. The part that has me hedging my answer is because you said "who have three forms". If you mean three different manifestations, then actually no. If you mean who is three different substances, then an even bigger NO! But if you mean who is three different personas (and here I hestitate to use the English term "person" because most English speakers think of that as three different individuals, which we most certainly do not mean), then YES.
The term personas means : roles if I understood correctly the latin definition. I think it's a term used also in theater to refer the different roles played by one actor. So do you mean the three "forms" (The Father, The Son, The Holy spirit) are three different roles/aspects of one God. Sorry to bother you again. There is some notions that are evidences for christian brothers but not really clear enough for me....But if you mean who is three different personas (and here I hestitate to use the English term "person" because most English speakers think of that as three different individuals, which we most certainly do not mean), then YES.
The term personas means : roles if I understood correctly the latin definition. I think it's a term used also in theater to refer the different roles played by one actor. So do you mean the three "forms" (The Father, The Son, The Holy spirit) are three different roles/aspects of one God. Sorry to bother you again. There is some notions that are evidences for christian brothers but not really clear enough for me.
If you want to get closer, go behind the Latin drama terms to think of Greek plays -- how one actor might present different personas to the audience by simply changing the mask that he held up. He isn't necessarily changing the character he is playing, but the way in which the character interacts with the audience. Since you seem to be a bit of a linguist, you might like to consider that the Greek terms used in the original description of what those who first articulated the concept of "God in three persons" held that the three personas were homoousios -- homo]/i] meaning "same" and ousios meaning "substance" -- so that it was saying that while the personas of Father, Son, and Spirit were distinct from each other, that they were still of just one substance. And I don't mean of similar substance meaning like one another (which would indeed mean three different gods), but of the one same substance (by which they meant to categorically state there really was just one God) even if that was confusing and illogical to human ways of thinking.
With the greatest of respect Jesus is indded the only begotton Son of God and not as some belive through a sexual act. God can and does do anything and can do anything, God is awsome and amazing and created all that is in this universe and beyound God is the Supreme supernatural being and therefore capable of anything! In the beginning when man takes the forbidden fruit note how he God says 2 behold he has become like US! Not like ME! What does this imply? Here are further scriptural references that point to a majestic almighty powerful Trinity ( no the third is not the human mary as some think but God's Glorious Holy spirit): Consider these OT and NT SCRIPTURES:
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sounds to me the idea of a 3-in-1 god is taken from Greek mythology/tragedy drama.
Maybe it was indeed created to appeal to the latin masses
Perhaps, but the idea that God conveyed Himself the way He did simply to appease humanity is quite an alien concept in Christianity.
Not really. Christianity was already a fast growing religion before it started to appeal to the 'Latin masses'- and rather than change the teachings of Christianity to make it more popular, the emperors simply enforced it on the Empire, as evidenced by Emperor Theodosius outlawing paganism. It makes sense, really. Why bother to change the teachings of a religion when you have the power to force people to convert anyway? There simply is no point.the fact remains that the concept of 3-in-1 god had much higher appeal to the latin masses who were used to the greek and roman gods than the idea of One Absolute God.
So have you ever thought that early christian leaders "tweaked" Jesus pbuh teachings to make christianity more popular, which culminated in the Nicea Council in the 4rd century?
Indeed. All the more reason to be careful to see what is meant by the figure and how it is being used by the writer. In the case of the author of the Gospel of John, we note that he uses the term μονογενη (monogene) or μονογενους (monogenous) as an adjective to better describe the figure. Such a term is used a grand total of 9 times in scripture."Son of God" is a figure of speech which have been proven to be the name given to a human being or a spirit worshiping God ( many other Prophets were labeled as for example:
Actually, I do believe that there was some "tweaking" going on. But not to appeal to the Gentile world, rather to be sure that it was soundly anchored in the Hebrew scriptures. Reading Paul, the evidence suggests that Paul clearly wanted to articulate Jesus as the Jewish Messiah. And he wanted to show the Gentile world that they needed this Messiah, that they didn't even know anything about, because salvation was of the Jews -- Jesus words (John 4:22) and Paul's modus operandi (Romans 1:16).So have you ever thought that early christian leaders "tweaked" Jesus pbuh teachings to make christianity more popular, which culminated in the Nicea Council in the 4rd century?
the fact remains that the concept of 3-in-1 god had much higher appeal to the latin masses who were used to the greek and roman gods than the idea of One Absolute God.
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