Assalam-o-Alaikum Brothers/Sisters. I'm a researcher on Islam and comparative religion (although I'm a Muslim). The aim of my research is to find the scientific/numeric and archaeological consistencies amongst these religions. However, I'm a convinced believer of Islam and the concept of Tauhid makes logical sense to me. In terms of knowing the eternal truth it is essential for a book to have no contradictions, errors and omissions, the Quran lives up to the mark of being a miraculously perfect book, Alhumdullilah. However, recently i came across the story of Moses in Surah Taha (Chapter 20), where Pharoah challenges Moses to a duel with magicians. After the duel, the magicians start to believe in Allah. However, they make the following comment interpreted in the following verses from which i have question:
(20:73) We believe in our Lord that He may forgive us our sins and also forgive us the practice of magic to which you had compelled us. Allah is the Best and He alone will abide."
My first question with the above verse is that how was the practice of magic a sin in those days when it had become so common? Who revealed to these magicians that sorcery is a sin, as far as my knowledge is concerned Moses never delivered them the message which states that practicing magic is a sin before the duel.
(20:73) We believe in our Lord that He may forgive us our sins and also forgive us the practice of magic to which you had compelled us. Allah is the Best and He alone will abide."
My first question with the above verse is that how was the practice of magic a sin in those days when it had become so common? Who revealed to these magicians that sorcery is a sin, as far as my knowledge is concerned Moses never delivered them the message which states that practicing magic is a sin before the duel.