need help with tajweed

U

Ummu Sufyaan

is in need of dua
Messages
7,926
Reaction score
1,403
Gender
Female
Religion
Islam
:sl:
for the rule of Idghaam (merging), this is what i have read in my book.

The rule of idghaam is applied only to noon saakinah (and tanween) when it occurs at the end of a word. If the following word begins with one of the letters of idghaam, assimilation (idghaam) will take place.

But then further on it has: The quran contains four words in which noon saakinah occurs in the middle of a word and is folloed by waaw or yaa.

قنوان
صنوان
بنيان
دنيا
These do not follow the rule of idghaam rather the noon is proounce distinctly without ghunnah (i.e ithaar) wherver they appear.

So, is it just me, or do the above 2 paragraphs contradict one another. if noon saakinah only appears at the end of a word, then what do the four above words have to do with idghaam?? According to my understanding, the noon saakinahs shouldn't be affected because they do not occur at the end of the word, they occur in the middle.

:sl:

:sl:
 
Last edited:
Wa alaikum Salam
So, is it just me, or do the above 2 paragraphs contradict one another.
Click to expand...

first explain to me, i before e rule from English, then it will be easier for you to understand exceptions to the rules of other languages

wa salam alaikum
 
Last edited:
Assalamualaikum sister,
MashaAllah you understand it correctly. Don't confused yourself..some of us may forget that the rule of idgham only occurs at the end of the word while they remember only the idgham letters. So then whenever noon sakinah followed by waaw or yaa, comes straight to ur mind the idgham rule.Also surah Al-Qalam and Yaa Seen we have to pronounce noon with ithaar when joining the words.Those four words we read with ithaar called ithaar mutlak..

maryam11 said:
:sl:
for the rule of Idghaam (merging), this is what i have read in my book.

The rule of idghaam is applied only to noon saakinah (and tanween) when it occurs at the end of a word. If the following word begins with one of the letters of idghaam, assimilation (idghaam) will take place.

But then further on it has: The quran contains four words in which noon saakinah occurs in the middle of a word and is folloed by waaw or yaa.

قنوان
صنوان
بنيان
دنيا
These do not follow the rule of idghaam rather the noon is proounce distinctly without ghunnah (i.e ithaar) wherver they appear.

So, is it just me, or do the above 2 paragraphs contradict one another. if noon saakinah only appears at the end of a word, then what do the four above words have to do with idghaam?? According to my understanding, the noon saakinahs shouldn't be affected because they do not occur at the end of the word, they occur in the middle.

:sl:

:sl:
Click to expand...
 
:sl:
thanks you so much akhti.
so basically, idghaam can also occur in the midle of a word?
:sl:
 
if noon saakinah only appears at the end of a word, then what do the four above words have to do with idghaam?? According to my understanding, the noon saakinahs shouldn't be affected because they do not occur at the end of the word, they occur in the middle.
Click to expand...

No they are not affected, as far as i know those words are given because they are the only words in the Quran where the nun sakinah and letters of idgham appear within the word. :)
 
Rose_Ice said:
No they are not affected, as far as i know those words are given because they are the only words in the Quran where the nun sakinah and letters of idgham appear within the word. :)
Click to expand...

:sl:
jazakallah khair
so in other words, you dont pronounce it with idghaam, you pronounce it as ithaar mutlak, as sis umm maysa said.
:sl:
 
Hello maryam,

I think the best way to learn the tajweed is the listening to the old readers when you recite the quran like:

1- abdel baset

http://english.islamway.com/bindex.php?section=echapters&recitor_id=52


2- mahmoud al hosary

http://www.islamway.com/?iw_s=Quran&iw_a=view&id=144


Not only the tajweed you need, you need to understand you read, so I want to understand some sings of the quran from the following link:

http://www.learnfromquran.com, this site is helpful for non- arabic becuate he illustrate the meaning of the ayat,

you will learn there:
1- Understanding the holy quran ----> in the site forums
2- Understanding the holy quran -----> in the Learn From Quran Link on the site itself.
3- Lessons for muslims.
4- Islamic miracles.
5- How to recite the quran.

send your feedback when you want any more topics or information
 
it does help listening to others recite however bear in mind that you should not get too carried away with trying to sound too good when learning pronounciation. the majority of us arent arent natural born singers and you should be pleased with the way you sound. as long as all tajweed rules are followed then inshallah there will be no flaw in your recitation.
 
:sl:
got another question.
lets all turn to surat al-Israa, verse 20 and 21(17: 20& 21).
if one was to continue reading (i.e not stopping at at the end of versie 20), what rule of tajweed would apply. So, normally, if one was to stop at the end of verse 20, Madd al-Iwadh would be applied, and one would pronouce the word as "mathooraa" (as opposed to "mahthooran". Likewise if one was to start at the beginning of verse 21, the rule of hamzatul-wasl would be applied. i.e you would pronouce the first word of the verse as ""unthor (excuse the bad transliteration.
so, i say it would be ikfaa. however, my mum says no, because there are two saakinahs following one another, and appernalty that dosn't work (apparently there is a rule pertaining to two saakinahs following one another:?)

so, what is the rule?
:sl:
 
:sl: sister,
there is rule whenever two sakin meets called iltiqaa' sakinain. In these verses, first saakin is the noon of mahthooran and second saakin is noon from word Unthur. So we have to put kasrah on the first saakin noon only when join. So it become mahthooraninthur. Hamzah wasal not pronounced when join the verses.

maryam11 said:
:sl:
got another question.
lets all turn to surat al-Israa, verse 20 and 21(17: 20& 21).
if one was to continue reading (i.e not stopping at at the end of versie 20), what rule of tajweed would apply. So, normally, if one was to stop at the end of verse 20, Madd al-Iwadh would be applied, and one would pronouce the word as "mathooraa" (as opposed to "mahthooran". Likewise if one was to start at the beginning of verse 21, the rule of hamzatul-wasl would be applied. i.e you would pronouce the first word of the verse as ""unthor (excuse the bad transliteration.
so, i say it would be ikfaa. however, my mum says no, because there are two saakinahs following one another, and appernalty that dosn't work (apparently there is a rule pertaining to two saakinahs following one another:?)

so, what is the rule?
:sl:
Click to expand...
 
Umm_Maysa said:
:sl: sister,
there is rule whenever two sakin meets called iltiqaa' sakinain. In these verses, first saakin is the noon of mahthooran and second saakin is noon from word Unthur. So we have to put kasrah on the first saakin noon only when join. So it become mahthooraninthur. Hamzah wasal not pronounced when join the verses.
Click to expand...

lol thats exactly what the poster above u said
 
:sl:
Is there another part of the quran where this rule is applied during the ayah? not at a stop?
:sl:
 
:sl:
Yes...many in Quran apply to this rule..in surah albaqarah ayat 180 khairan- alwasiyyatu read as khairanilwasiyyatu....and surah kahfi ayat 77 qaryatin-staT'amaa(excuse my transliteration) read as qaryatinistaT 'amaa...I have some more but cannot remember which surah and ayat number...like uzayrunibnu and lahwaninfadhdhu(I think in surah jumua...I can give u some other example too insha Allah...but it many in Quran...basically everytime u see tanween followed by another sukun just put kasrah on the noon of tanween no matter what harakat of tanween. if it fathah become anin or unin or inin( depends what the last letter of tanween).
 
Last edited:
:sl:
jazakallahu khair sis.
another qn in relation to this: why is it that you omit the hamzatul-wasl and not the alif follwing the tanween of fathah. is there like a 'ranking' where one is 'weaker' than the other. or not you not omit the alif following the tanween of fathah, because it is mandotory to have it (i.e it is the rule that when alif must follow the tanween of fathah-does that make sense).
:sl:
 
:sl:
i have another question.:hiding:
well, its actually not for me, for my mum.
she wants to know about the idghaam. we know that the letters of idghaam are يرملون and that the letters 'meem' and 'noon' are called idghaam bi ghunnah, and the letters 'laam' and 'raa' are idghaam naaqis/ bi ghayr ghunnah.

She wants to know what the remaining letters (yaa and waaw) are classed as, because in diffeent books she has read different things. in one book she read that they are idghaam naaqis/bi ghunnah, but in another she read that they are not because they do not have the qualities of the meem and noon, which are 'original ghunnahs,' so therefore they cannot be classed as idghaam naaqis/bi ghunnah. if that qn makes no sense, let me know.
:sl:
 
maryam11 said:
:sl:
jazakallahu khair sis.
another qn in relation to this: why is it that you omit the hamzatul-wasl and not the alif follwing the tanween of fathah. is there like a 'ranking' where one is 'weaker' than the other. or not you not omit the alif following the tanween of fathah, because it is mandotory to have it (i.e it is the rule that when alif must follow the tanween of fathah-does that make sense).
:sl:
Click to expand...
:sl:
good question Sis...we omit hamzatul-wasal when join, hamzatul wasal only pronoun when we start the verse with it.the fathatin(tanween fathah) always followed by alif except for hamzah fathatin and ta marbutah fathatin.So the alif here is mad letter..There is rule if the maad letter(not maad leen) followed by another sukun the maad letter is drop(omit).
 

Similar Threads

Back
Top