Abu Omar “
Well the NT doesn't abrogate the OT. Sure, that's what the church says, but the verse in NT clearly says that Isaa (aleyhi salaam) was sent to fulfill the Laws, not to abrogate it.” As an aside I have addressed that on this thread:
http://www.islamicboard.com/comparative-religion/18491-new-christian-covenant-o-t-laws.html
As a further aside what exactly did you mean by “
The Qur'an abrogates everything that was before”, if not what my reply implies you meant “
Is there no Old Testament teachings that are repeated in the Qur’an?
What of the practice of circumcision was abrogated?”
When did the 10 commandments become abrogated?
I, the same as you, am not trying to sound rude, but your post contained nothing relevant to the points I have raised.
So far your argument has been that the differences I cited are due to men corrupting the Bible.
I have asked why that assumption would be reasonably and logically correct, concerning the differences I cited.
So far you have not given me an answer.
Contrary to the title this thread was given, this is what this thread concerns:
“
Ansar Al-‘Adl was kind enough to break this out into a second thread concerning why folks might have a problem believing the Qur’an is the word of God”.
Hana_Aku, post #15, yes I will provide the Bible scriptures concerning what I cited on this thread. I would have thought you would be familiar with the Islamic writings I have cited.
I will look them up for you as well.
Hana_Aku, post #16, what logical reason do you offer for the Biblical omission
Of the miracles of the child Jesus that are found in Islamic writings?
You keep offering the explanation that the “
Original manuscripts” are not available to us today. That reason is very lacking in many respects, the boldest of which is that you assume to know that the “
Original manuscripts” were not available at the time the Bible was canonized. Why would you presume to know what writings and manuscripts were available to the studious men who canonized the Bible?
If your implications of these men, not doing due diligence, or, them having sinister motives for canonizing what they did, are to be believed in regard to what I cited on this thread you need to present a reasonable case for believing those implications.
So far you have not.
Hana_Aku, post #17, “
No, absolutely not. There were many leaders that wanted to see Jesus, pbuh, dead as well as His followers. Why would they want to show how great He truly was?” if this is your line of thinking then I will have to ask you a question.
If these leaders wanted to diminish Jesus by omitting the Islamic miracles, then why didn’t they also omit the rest of Jesus’ miracles?
To be a bit plainer, why are only the Islamic miracles omitted? Why do Islamic writings disagree with the Bible in regard to the miracles Jesus performed?
You have not offered a reasonable answer to that.
Hana_Aku, post #18, “
Yes, previous scriptures should agree, and the true teachings of Jesus, pbuh, and the prophets before Him, pbut, I do agree.”
We have found some common ground.
Now explain why Muhammad’s teachings should not have to agree with the things I cited on this thread.
That leaves us at this point:
If you are implying that Muhammad’s teachings didn’t need to be reconciled to God’s previous words, then explain why you believe that.
Or
You think the differences I cited are due to corruption, which takes us back to square one.
If you think the differences are due to corruption, then show me why you reasonably believe that to be the case.
I have given points of reason for suggesting what I have suggested, counter those points.
I know you think you have, but you have a bias “
ok, I will wait until you have time to show the verses where the apostles went away from the word of God and the teachings of Jesus, pbuh, and incorporated their own laws.”
Why would you be so quick to assume the Apostles strayed from Jesus’ teachings? What would make you assume they were not acting with in the confines of the authority Jesus had bestowed upon them? (This, btw, is exactly what they were doing.)
Hana_Aku, post #20, you were the one that cited the number of versions of the Bible; I didn’t even once ask you to cite a source for that number. I didn’t pursue the reasonable counter argument that the oldest Bibles agree with what I cited, therefore any later revisions have no bearing on my argument regardless of their number.
I could have very easily disarmed your counter-point, but I didn’t.
Instead I simply asked you “
If your answer is Yes, then what was your point?”
What was your point in what you cited, if not to imply that somehow the reason for differences I cited were due to the Bible being corrupted.
This brings us back to square one, give me a reasonable logical argument to support the assumption that the differences I cited are due to the Bible being corrupted.
Before anyone posits that I am just being unreasonable in my judgments concerning the replies given on this thread, I had a reason for dragging the Book of Mormon and the book Pearl of Great Price into the thread.
If you say I am unreasonably judging the replies on this thread, the Mormons or LDS offer almost the exact same counter arguments that have been offered on this thread.
I highly doubt you would find those arguments from them to be credible.
Hana_Aku, post #21, are you trying to imply that Daniel didn’t reveal words from God to mankind? If that isn’t your implications then what you posted in post #21 is purely a case of arguing semantics and my original statement stands.
Thanks
Nimrod