In the name of Allah, the Most Beneficent, the Most Merciful!
By (the Token of) Time (through the ages),
Verily Man is in loss,
Except such as have Faith, and do righteous deeds, and (join together) in the mutual teaching of Truth, and of Patience and Constancy.”
Holy Quran- (Surah Asr 103:1-3) (Translation By Yusuf Ali)
Peace To Those Who Follow The Guidance!
Greeting Nicola!
No need to apologise, thanks for getting back to me!
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Joh 1:1
John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God
One of the Christian members in another forum put forward the following he said is the Greek version of John 1:1and the term used to describe God is highlighted and underlined.
᾿Εν ἀρχῇἦν ὁ Λόγος, καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν
Θεόν, καὶ
Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος.
But if you look at it carefully the underline scriptures, you will see that the words used to describe God are of two different Kinds-
one is
Θεόν and the other is
Θεὸς
The First time the word God is used in the verse John 1:1 is the definite form hotheos, meaning ‘The God’.
However, in the second phrase “and the Word was God”, the Greek word used for ‘God’ is the indefinite form tontheos which means ‘a god’
Consequently, John 1:1, should more accurately be translated, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.”
But if you insist that the indefinite form tontheos to be the main God, then that would mean that you have two Gods- for example
3-“and the Word was God”--- this means, you take Word to be the definite form of God (Word = GOD)
Now if you substitute Word with GOD and apply it to the previous two verses for example….
1- In the beginning was the Word,
2- and the Word was with God,
You get
In the beginning was the GOD
And the GOD was with GOD
GOD was with GOD… clearly shows that there are two Gods,
You see in Biblical language, the term ‘god’ (god in the indefinite form i.e. a god)
is used metaphorically to indicate power. For example, Paul referred to the devil as “god” in 2nd Corinthians 4:4,
“In their case the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, to keep them from seeing the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the likeness of God.”
Moses is also referred to as “god” in Exodus 7:1,
“And the Lord said unto Moses, ‘See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh; and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet.”
So if you insist that the indefinite form of god (a god) to be The God, then you will have to accept the Devil to be God- and also Moses (PBUH)- which is impossible-
Going back to the initial topic we were discussing, (how your personal encounter with God is consistent with the scriptures of the bible)
You have kindly put forward several verses from the bible to support your case- the first one we were discussing was John 10:30 “
I and my Father are one”, which you agree can be interpreted as one in purpose and not in essence, otherwise we will have to agree that his disciples are one in essence with God as well-
I agree that we need to look at the evidence collectively before we reach a conclusion, but we also need to examine them properly- the next one on the list of verses you have put forward was to prove the divinity of Jesus was
God Never Changes
Malachi 3:6 For I am the LORD, I change not; therefore ye sons of Jacob are not consumed.
Jesus Never Changes
Hebrews 13:8 Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.
Can I ask you what is your understanding of the phrase God never changes- in what respect does god does not change, what qualifies as a change?
Looking forward to your response!
Kind regards
Qurban
