Lynx
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the link wasnt working.
but anyway....
So it not essential that a guy has to tell his first wife if he is to marry again but it is permissible for her to stipulate in her contract that she doesn’t want to be a co-wife.
so let me get this straight:
Polygamy (to you) still stinks, despite the indisputable fact that she is allowed to stipulate in her marriage contract that she doesn’t want to be a co-wife (That alone takes puts out all your other arguments).
Then you come up with some baloney about things which aren’t even relevant to the Islamic perspective of polygamy to begin with, such us backward and retarded cultural practices to support you claim that polygamy ought to be a no-no, despite it being pointed out to you that culture and islam are two separate things which actually results in a unfounded argument on your part
then you have the audacity to come up with some baseless crap on how the marriage contract may not always be applicable/practical, at your own convenience.
if you're going to base your argument on the Islamic perspective of polygamy, you might as well as be consistent in it, something you cant even seem to uphold throughout your own argument.
Im not seeing a how a woman is loosing out here. Sure the husband doesnt have to tell her, but at the same time, she IS permitted to stipulate in her marriage contract that she doesn’t want to be a co-wife.
dumb culture isnt islams fault. full stop.
But the fact that he can marry without her permission is what I am condemning. Yes she can by most scholarly accounts, but not all, (sucks if she is raised in an environemtn with a scholar who says no :>) stipulate that her husband cannot marry again BUT why is it allowed in the first place. By allowing it in the first place the Quran allows for exploitation. It would not be a burden to God to add one more ayah: and only if your first wife allows you to. This sounds like an improvement to the quran imO

Well, its not a logical fallacy. Logical fallacies are arguments which are self-contradictory or irrelevant. My argument, even if weaker or based on no ground, is not inherently logically fallacious. It very well could have been true if what I stated was true. Take that.
No a logical fallacy is an unjustified inference.
Some X's are Y's
Z is an X
Therefore Z is a Y.
The inference to the conclusion is where the fallacy occurs. Notice there isn't any contradiction and it's quite possible that the conclusion is true but to infer the conclusion from those set of premises is where the logical fallacy occurs. Similarly, your previous comment was not only weak but it was a logical fallacy because you inferred from 'the natural state of man' to 'this ought to be the case' without any justification.
But having multiple partners to spread his seed around is the very mechanism that insured his survival. Getting rid of that can be frustrating. So after the demolition of the institution of polygamy, in 21st century we see "innocent relationships" taking its place. A man beds 20 different women in his 20s before he finds the "right one." Then he sings the song "someday I am gonna make you my wife" to her but before that he has bedded 50 different women in his 50 different socially acceptable "innocent and cute valentine-style relations." So is the case with women though.
Well this goes against the fact that there are a lot of men who can stay with one woman and not cheat or anything. It's called self-control and restraint. Anyway, again man is now rational; he can control himself and he ought to control himself. If he can't then he should find a wife that will allow him to marry again if he wants to or not get married at all so that he does not hurt any future wife. Again, if that permission clause was there I would have no problem with it.
The strength of women's desire to not "share his husband" with anyone seems unique to humans only and very much dependent on culture! Women from villages cutoff from modern century do not feel any shame in that!
Again, if the woman is okay with it then go on right ahead.
What moral and ethical basis, principles and framework you have to say that "cheating" on one's wife by having relationships with neighbors wife is wrong? both are consensual and it should not piss that woman off whose husband engaged in such consensual relations with other woman, if I go by your godless worldview.
Consensual means ALL parties have to consent who will be affected. That includes the wife. If she doesn't care and lets the guy go sleep with the girl next door then you can say it's consensual. I am a very conservative person when it comes to sexual behavior so I wouldn't condone such lewd behavior but I don't think it is unethical if all 3 members consented. I have different categorization for such behavior. But yeh, the important thing to remember here is consent has to be given by all parties.
Edit: Oh, and I am not an atheist. I do believe in God just not anything like your God that sends people to Hell for not being convinced by really bad argumentation
