Sincere repentance to God for your sins in prayer is a true form of repentance, but it cannot absolve sin. To be absolved from your sins you must go to a priest, confess your sins to God in the priest's presence, and have the priest pray the prayer of absolution over you.
How then does the Orthodox church understand 1 John 1:9 -- "If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just and will forgive us our sins and purify us from all unrighteousness." Is it the opinion of the church that unless a priest is present, that such confession to God is not valid? If so, does that not limit God? If not, then how could it be that such confession which results in the forgiveness of sins and purification from all unrighteousness would some leave sins unabsolved?
Orthodox do believe that grace is a free gift. But read the post above. Sins cannot be absolved except through the prayer of absolution said by a priest. Of course you should always ask God's forgivness for your sins.
You might be able to guess from my questions, that I don't believe that understanding to be correct. Rather, I believe what you said earlier in this thread: "The Bible states that there is one mediator between man and God - Jesus Christ." For that reason, I don't think I need a priest (Catholic or Orthodox) to hear my confession. Not that there is something wrong in confessing to one another as well, but I don't
need to do so formally in order for God to grant me his grace. And his grace is all the absolution I need.
But how about you? One of the reasons you gave for expressing an interest in Islam was because "[you] especially like the fact that in Islam, you can have your sins forgiven by repentance, prayers and saying 100 times "Subhan Allahi wa Bihamdihi"." Is it that you disagree with Orthodox (and for that matter Catholic) theology regarding the role of the priest vs. God in imputing grace? Or is it that you want a sort of works righteousness whereby you can do certain prescribed acts in order to obtain God's favor?
I study ancient Greek at university. The Orthodox Church, however, has existed since the time of the Apostles, and it has always practiced baptism by thrice immersion, except where this would be impossible.
Very good. I really enjoyed my Greek studies. Since you're studying it, then you were probably already aware of what I shared about the common usages of baptizo.
Yes, I am awarethat the Orthodox church has practiced baptism by immersion for many years, but I don't think that any of us can really say that it has
always been practiced that way unless we were always present. Of course, I do appreciate the symbolism imbuded in the sacrament when performed by immersion. It is my preferred mode as well. I just don't think it is the only mode ordained as acceptable. Truly, one must make sense out of first century drawings which show baptizm being done by pouring water on the head from a shell. And why would the sign of a scallop shell with water dripping from it have been used as a symbol to communicate baptism if baptisms were never done by that means?
The Orthodox Church sees the Catholic Church as schismatic since the Great Schism which culminated in 1054 A.D. The Catholic Bishops, therefore, are not part of the Church, they have no apostolic succession, and any sacraments they perform are not valid, including the Sacrament of Holy Orders (ordaining priests). Therefore, any priests ordained by Catholic bishops since the schism have not been priests at all, and their sacraments are not valid.
And yet, there are conversations between the Orthodox and the Catholic churches to perhaps heal this schism. How would the Orthodox do that. Would they have all of the Catholic priests "re-ordained"? From an Orthodox point of view, as you expressed it, not even the Pope is a valid priest. And I am confused how then it would be that the Orthodox would say, as you did earlier, that "all Bishops are equal". Or are the Orthodox saying that the Pope today is not in fact a true bishop of the Church any longer?