Questions on Islam

[Mohsin]

I've got 3 questions inshallah that i hope bro's and sisters can help answer

1) A muslim friend of mine was giving da'wah to his non-muslim friend, and the non-muslim basically went on about how islam oppresses women and that men and women dnt have the sme rights. My friend said women aren't oppressed, but yeah they have different rights, men have some rights on women, and women have some rights on men. He said women have right to inheritance, the right to vote etc etc,but the non-muslim asked what rights do women have that men do not have,as all the above he mentioned applies to both. My friend ddnt knw hw to answer and asked me.
I myself can only think of one, which is women do not have to spend anything of their own money towards family and living etc. I know also that jannah is at the feet of the mothers, and they are entitled to 3 times more love than the father. The non-muslim said since you think women and men are different then surely women have rights that men don't, and obviously vice versa.Are there any other rights that women have that men don't have?


2) On this site http://www.allaahuakbar.net/misconceptions/INDEX.HTM i read the answer to Question 64, why are muslims not allowed to marry non-muslims. I've read most these answers and they all seem to have cropped in a Zakir Naik talk, so i think this may be a Zakir Naik answer aswell. The answer was

The ultimate goal and salvation for every Muslim is to attain paradise in the Hereafter. A true husband or a wife will also want his/her spouse to attain paradise in the here-after. How can two life-partners live together if their ultimate goal i.e. Salvation differs? Or if the ways that they have chosen to lead to this goal are different? Such a marriage would be like a vehicle whose one tyre is that of a cycle while the other tyre is that of a truck. How will the vehicle run smoothly? Similarly if the beliefs or concepts of salvation of the spouses differ then how can they live in congruence and achieve marital harmony?

Although i think it's a good and reasonable answer, it's confused me as it contradicts the permission for men to marry pure christian or jews (who don't do shirk). surely the case is the same, as even with christian or jewish women who don't associate partners with god, the fact that we're allowed to marry them, surely the same logic can be applied that the husband and wife will have total different ideas of salvation so why is it that jewish or christian women can be life-partners?


3) I was reading the english translation of "Stories of The Prophets" By Ibn Kathir. He mentioned this one hadith in Al-Bukhari 3330

"Were it not for the Children Of Israel, meats would not become rotten; and were it not for Eve, woman would not have cheated their husbands"

Basically Ibn Kathir was commenting on the story of Adam AS and said Eve ate from the Tree first, then incited Adam AS, and used the above hadith as proof.
Basically my question is i always here ppl like Dr Zakir Naik Shabbir Ally etc saying how islam is different to christianity in regards to women and that unlike the Bible it doesn't teach that Eve is to blame for what happened. Well this hadith seems to say otherwise, implying Eve is at fault and she cheated Adam AS into eating from the tree, so doesn't that mean islam and christianity are no different in their position on who's fault it is as to disobeying Allah, or have i completely misunderstood this hadith?

 

[Ansar Al-'Adl]

With regard to your last question (I'll get the rest later inshaa'Allah), IslamToday.com writes:

Al-Salâm `Alaykum wa Rahmah Allah wa Barakâtuh.

It is related from Abû Hurayrah that the Prophet (peace be upon him) said: “If it were not for the Jews, meat would not spoil, and were it not for Eve, no woman would deceive her husband.”

This hadîth is authentic and can be found in Sahîh al-Bukhârî (3330) and Sahîh Muslim (1470).

With respect to the Jews and meat, as to what it means, we refer to the commentary of Sahîh al-Bukhârî written by Ibn Hajar al-`Asqalânî. He mentions the following two views that have been advanced regarding its meaning. Neither of these views are themselves verifiable.

One explanation he mentions is that the Jews established for themselves the practice of storing meat for so long so that it would go bad. The Jews introduced this practice, and if they had not done so, then this practice of storing meat so long would not have become prevalent and meat would not be left so long that it would be allowed to go bad.

Another explanation is given by al-Qurtubî and Qatâdah who quote from unknown sources – probably drawn from Jewish or Christian traditional lore – that when the Jews were out in the desert and were sent manna and quail they were commanded not to store it up. However, they disobeyed and stored up the meat, so that they were punished by the quail flesh being spoiled. There seems to be an implication here that meat before that event did not spoil – an implication that is obviously false. Therefore, we can be sure that this is not the explanation.

In another book of traditions, Hulyah al-Awliyâ’ which was compiled by al-Asbahânî, an alternative reading of the hadîth is give, where it states: “If it were not decreed that food would spoil, the wealthy would store it up to the detriment of the poor.”

[Reference: Fath al-Bârî, commentary on Sahîh al-Bukhârî]

And Allah knows best.

With respect to the phrase “and were it not for Eve, no woman would deceive her husband.” We will again refer to Ibn Hajar’s commentary, where he says:

This is making reference to when Eve made eating from the tree seem appealing so that he ate from it. The meaning of her deception is that she accepted what Satan had made seem appealing o her and then made it seem appealing to Adam. Since she is the mother of all the daughters of Adam, they all resemble her through heredity by virtue of their descent from her. Therefore, there is almost no woman who escapes from somehow deceiving her husband by word or deed. This “deception” does not mean that she will commit some indecency – far be it from that! It means that as she has a tendency to personal desires that brought her to eat of the tree and making it seem fair-seeming to Adam – and that was her deception – likewise the women who come after her have the tendency to deception to one degree or another. This is similar to the hadîth: “Adam exhibited ingratitude, so likewise his descendants exhibit ingratitude”.​

The hadîth also indicates the tendency men have to be distracted by their wives, just like Adam with his wife, and that this is simply part of their natures. So no one should go overboard in berating women for what they do unintentionally and infrequently. Also, women should not let themselves give in to such tendencies, but check themselves and strive to restrain such tendencies.

Here, Ibn Hajar explains this to mean simply that we as descendents of Adam and Eve and therefore we share the same human nature, tendencies, and characteristics of our parents. It is nothing more than that. It is no blame on either them or us that we have the nature Allah created us upon.

And Allah knows best.​

 

[Mohsin]

Any1 gt answers for the other 2 questions by ne chance

 

[Ansar Al-'Adl]

As for your first question,
There are a number of distinctions women have from men in Islam. One of the major ones is the lofty status of the mother, which you have correctly observed. The woman also has a right over her husband's money (http://islamtoday.com/show_detail_section.cfm?q_id=1008&main_cat_id=17). Meanwhile the husband is not allowed to take from his wife's money except for that which she gives him as a gift. There is also the disticntion with regard to the dowry:
http://islamtoday.com/show_quest_section.cfm?main_cat_id=17&sub_cat_id=86

There are also various ahadith which single out women as oppose to men.
Whoever nourishes three daughters and educates them, arranges their marriages and treats them well, he will enter paradise. (Abu Dawud)

There are many more you can read about:
http://www.witness-pioneer.org/vil/Books/JB/statusofwomen.html
http://islamtoday.com/show_sub_section.cfm?main_cat_id=17&sub_cat_id=0
http://www.load-islam.com/Women/

As for your second question, please see here:
http://www.islamonline.net/servlet/...sh-AAbout_Islam/AskAboutIslamE/AskAboutIslamE

 

[Mohsin]

Jazakallah khair for reply, havent had a chance to read the links about women rights, will do soon ia, but i read the answer you provided for marrying non-muslims, and i don't think my questions quite been answered. On the answer i pasted it said how can two people with two different ideas of salvation be life partners. Now that still applies to marrying Christian women and jewsish women. Yes their rights will be there and they won't be discriminated for their religion, but again like what Dr Naik (I'm guessing it's him) says, how can two people who have different ideas of God and salvation be life partners

 

[Ansar Al-'Adl]

The reasoning about two people with two different ideas of salvation being partners is not the complete answer regarding why Muslim women cannot marry non-muslim men, because as you correctly pointed out, Muslim men can marry Christian or Jewish women (although the Prophet Muhammad pbuh strongly advised Muslims to always look for piety and religion first in a potential spouse). The complete answer has to do with the difference in the roles, rights and influence of the husband and wife, as explained in the link I provided.