Sura 2:228 - divorce and pregnancy

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theplains

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I had some questions about this passage. From quran.com.

"Divorced women remain in waiting for three periods, and it is not lawful for them to conceal
what Allah has created in their wombs if they believe in Allah and the Last Day. And their
husbands have more right to take them back in this [period] if they want reconciliation. And
due to the wives is similar to what is expected of them, according to what is reasonable. But
the men have a degree over them [in responsibility and authority]. And Allah is Exalted in
Might and Wise
".

Is is lawful for them to conceal what God has created in their wombs if they do not believe
in God and the last day?

What is the punishment for a husband who divorces his wife when she is pregnant?

What is due to the wife which is similar to what is expected of her?

Is a women in Islam given the right to divorce her husband?

Peace,
Jim
 
Is is lawful for them to conceal what God has created in their wombs if they do not believe
in God and the last day?
This question isn't directed at Muslims is it? only Non-Muslim women can answer that for you since they don't abide by our laws.


What is the punishment for a husband who divorces his wife when she is pregnant?

why should there be a punishment? It is lawful in Islam to divorce although it is the most disliked by :Allah: :swt:


What is due to the wife which is similar to what is expected of her?

That is per their contract!


Is a women in Islam given the right to divorce her husband?

Yes however it isn't arbitrary she needs to seek judicial review of her case!

best,
 
جوري;1588918 said:

This question isn't directed at Muslims is it? only Non-Muslim women can answer that for you since they don't abide by our laws.

Thanks. Does God have the same law or different law for pregnant women who are believers
and those who are unbelievers?

Peace,
Jim
 
Thanks. Does God have the same law or different law for pregnant women who are believers
and those who are unbelievers?

Peace,
Jim
The only religion with God is pure Islamic monotheism. Other people follow their own man made laws.. supreme court makes them I guess like the rulings for homos marrying!
 
A man can divorce his wife in pregnancy, after her pregnancy is shown by missed period. When he divorces her, she remains in his house until the child is born and he can take her back during this time (if it is the first or second divorce). You can read Surah Talaq for more information.

A woman can't divorce the husband orally but she can go to court and get divorce by returning the Mahr (marriage gift that the husband gave her).
 
جوري;1589205 said:

The only religion with God is pure Islamic monotheism. Other people follow their own man made laws

So when the Quran says "Divorced women remain in waiting for three periods, and it is not lawful
for them to conceal
what Allah has created in their wombs if they believe in Allah and the Last Day",
is this God's command to women of all religions or just Muslim women? If this is God's command
only to Muslim women, then what is his command to non-Muslim women?

Peace,
Jim
 
Greetings Jim,

You must remember that you are reading an interpretation of the Qur'an, whose original language is Arabic. When reading it in another language, inevitably some of the finer points in understanding can be lost. Not only this, but in order to study the meanings of the Qur'an at a deeper level, there are various pre-requisites required such as knowledge of the Arabic language, knowledge of the Sunnah and other things, which lay people typically do not possess. [The Sunnah is the teachings of the Prophet :saws: which provide further details regarding the Qur'an, so it is indispensable when it comes to studying details of Islamic law, as many of your questions relate to]. So although the basic message of the Qur'an is easily understandable, once you wish to know what rulings can be derived from certain verses, you need to consult scholars, not people on a forum. If there is a Mosque in your area, perhaps the Imam there can offer some help. The questions that you are posing here are basically an interpretation of an interpretation, and clearly this will result in misunderstanding. When a Muslim studies the rulings on divorce and pregnancy, they won't pick up a translation of the Qur'an and make their own conclusion. They will learn from a teacher who will give them the full picture based on the relevant verses in the Qur'an as well as the teachings of the Prophet :saws:, and explain how these are to be understood. Those who wish to study Islamic law in a formal way will spend a considerable number of years becoming grounded in the essential Islamic sciences. I hope it becomes clear now why it is important to consult a knowledgeble person rather than a forum.

As an example, in the verse you quoted above, you have taken the word 'if' to mean a condition for the preceding clause. Even if we stick to a superficial understanding within the english language, the statement can be understood differently. So exactly which meaning is intended is clarified by going back to the Arabic language and understanding the other tools for Qur'anic exegesis. Here is what it says in one of the commentaries:

(...if they believe in Allah and the Last Day.)

This Ayah warns women against hiding the truth (if they were pregnant or on their menses), indicating that they are the authority in such matters as they alone know such facts about themselves. Since verifying such matters is difficult, Allah left this decision with them. Yet, women were warned not to hide the truth in case they wish to end the `Iddah sooner, or later, according to their desires. Women were thus commanded to say the truth (if they were pregnant or on their menses), no more and no less.
http://www.qtafsir.com/index.php?option=com_content&task=view&id=183&Itemid=36

And for a fuller understanding, it's best to consult the Muslim scholars.
 
This Ayah warns women against hiding the truth (if they were pregnant or on their menses), indicating that they are the authority in such matters as they alone know such facts about themselves. Since verifying such matters is difficult, Allah left this decision with them. Yet, women were warned not to hide the truth in case they wish to end the `Iddah sooner, or later, according to their desires. Women were thus commanded to say the truth (if they were pregnant or on their menses), no more and no less.
http://www.qtafsir.com/index.php?option=com_content&task=view&id=183&Itemid=36

And for a fuller understanding, it's best to consult the Muslim scholars.

Thank you Muhammad. I found your mention of Iddah in wikipedia. Although it is not
an authoritative Islamic source, it seemed to give a good explanation.

Jim
 

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