i thought of quoting your entire post but then thought better of it. now as it regards the audience, look carefully for this will be a teaching moment. in the above it is claimed that that both christ and the bible do not teach concerning the blood atonement for forgiveness of sins. but wait a minute, did i not just quote christ's explicit words to show that he claimed that he was going to die for the sins of the world? hmm, let's see if i understand this correctly. so when christ says the following:
"For even the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give his life as a ransom for many." --- Mark 10:45 NIV
"This is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins." --- Matthew 26:28 NIV
23 Jesus replied, “The hour has come for the Son of Man to be glorified. 24 Very truly I tell you, unless a kernel of wheat falls to the ground and dies, it remains only a single seed. But if it dies, it produces many seeds. [...] 27 “Now my soul is troubled, and what shall I say? ‘Father, save me from this hour’? No, it was for this very reason I came to this hour. 28 Father, glorify your name!” Then a voice came from heaven, “I have glorified it, and will glorify it again.” 29 The crowd that was there and heard it said it had thundered; others said an angel had spoken to him. 30 Jesus said, “This voice was for your benefit, not mine. 31 Now is the time for judgment on this world; now the prince of this world will be driven out. 32 And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself.” 33 He said this to show the kind of death he was going to die. — John 10:23-24, 27-33 NIV
Greetings again Sol,
There are three points i would like to touch upon here:
Firstly, it is not historically correct to say that Jesus had come to die willingly and deliberately for the sins of men. We read in the Bible that he did NOT wish to die on the cross. For, when he knew that his enemies were plotting against his life, he declared that his
"soul was exceedingly sorrowful unto death", he asked his disciples to keep watch over him to protect him from his enemies and he prayed to God,
"Abba, Father, all things are possible unto Thee; take away this cup from me; nevertheless not what 1 will, but what Thou wilt." (Mark 14:36)
Secondly, we fail to see how the suffering and death of one man can wipe out the sins of others. It sounds something like the physician breaking his own head to cure the headache of his patients. The idea of substitutionary or vicarious sacrifice is illogical, meaningless and unjust.
Thirdly, the idea that shedding of blood is necessary to appease the Wrath of God has come into Christianity from the primitive man's image of God as an all-powerful demon. We see NO connection at all between sin and blood. What is necessary to wash away sin is not blood but repentance, remorse, persistent struggle against evil inclinations, development of greater sympathy for mankind and determination to carry out the Will of God as revealed to us through the prophets.
The Qur'an says:
"To God does not reach the flesh or the blood I of animals they sacrifice), but unto Him is acceptable righteousness on your part" (22:37)
The doctrine of the Atonement makes the First Person of Godhead into a blood-thirsty tyrant in order to demonstrate the self-sacrificing love of the Second Person. To a dispassionate critic, the sacrifice of the Second Person appears as much misplaced and meaningless as the demand of the First Person is cruel and sadistic.
Why would God have his own begotten son slaughtered by his own creations in order to abolish the sin of his own creations? No matter which way you put it, this is clearly a very troubling concept to say the least.
Arthur Weigall makes the following significant comment on the doctrine of the Atonement:
"We can no longer accept the appalling theological doctrine that for some mystic reason a propitiatory sacrifice was necessary. It outrages either our conception of God as Almighty or else our conception of Him as All-Loving. The famous Dr. Cruden believed that for the : purpose of this sacrifice 'Christ suffered dreadful pains inflicted by God', and this of course, is a standpoint which nauseates the modem mind and which may well be termed a hideous doctrine, not unconnected with the sadistic tendencies of primitive human nature. Actually, it is of pagan origin, being, indeed, perhaps the most obvious relic of heathendom in the Faith."
The Christian scheme of salvation is not only morally and rationally unsound, but it also has NO support of the words or teachings of Jesus. Jesus may be said to have suffered for the sins of men as you have quoted in a verse above in the sense that, in order to take them out of darkness into light, he incurred the wrath of the evildoers and was tortured by them; but that does NOT mean that his death was an atonement for the sins of others and that only those who believe in his blood would be forgiven. Where does the verse state that? Clearly it does NOT.
So therefore those verses that you quoted CANNOT be used to prove your point because they do not prove that Jesus taught or said anything about the fact that his blood was necessery for the atonement of the inherited sin of mankind. But the verses and proof i have provided explicitly proves that sin is to be forgiven by the mercy of God alone and NOT by God slaughtering his son by the hands of his own creations just to forgiven a sin that mankind never committed in the first place.
Jesus had come to rescue men from sin by his teaching and the example of his religiously devoted life to the commands of God, and not by deliberately dying for them on the cross and offering his blood as a propitiation for their sins. When a young man came and asked him
"Good Master, what shall I do that I may inherit eternal life?" he mentioned NOTHING about his atoning sacrifice and the redeeming power of Iris blood. His reply was the same as that of every other prophet.
For he said: "Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God; but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments." (Matthew 19:17)
"Keep the commandments" that, according to Jesus, was the way to eternal life. Salvation could be gained by believing in God, eschewing evil and doing good, and not by accepting Jesus as the redeemer and believing in his blood atonement.
So the three points are that the dogma of the Atonement is unsound, for (1) man is not born in sin. (2) God does not require a price to forgive the sinners, and (3) the idea of substitutionary or vicarious sacrifice is unjust and cruel. By sinning we do NOT harm God, but ourselves.
The stain of sin on our souls CAN be removed, not by the suffering or death of any other person, whether the latter be willing or unwilling, but by our own repentance, turning away from evil and doing good. And so, when Adam, after the act of disobedience, repented and submitted himself completely to God, his sin was forgiven. Neither is the sin of Adam inherited by the children of Adam, nor did it require the suffering and death of Jesus Christ to be forgiven.
The truth is that Jesus did NOT die on the cross at all. The doctrine of the Atonement is an absolute denial of the Justice and Mercy of God. As i have already mentioned in my previous posts Islam TOTALLY rejects this dogma and declares that the forgiveness of sins cannot be obtained by the suffering and sacrifice of any other person, human or divine, but by the Grace of God and our own sincere and persistent efforts to fight against evil and do good:
(that no laden one shall bear another's load, and that man hath only that for which he maketh effort, and that his effort will be seen) (The Glorious Qur'un 53:38,40)
(Whosoever goeth right, it is only for the good of his own soul that he goeth right, and whosoever erreth, erreth only to its hurt. No laden soul can bear another's load) (17:15)
Clearly you are trying to divert away from this topic because you KNOW that the blood atonement is a concept which is consistant with nor is it backed up by ANY of the teachings of Jesus or the Christian deity.
All you have done is quote a verse out of context where it does not mention anything about the blood atonement of Christ being necessery for the inherited sin of mankind to be eradicated, whereas i have provided you with overwhelming evidence from your own Bible that the teaching of the blood atonement of Christ is NOT a teaching that was consistant with or taught by ANY prophet or the Bible but clearly it was in fact created after Jesus as was the concept of the trinity and the Theotokas.
in terms of logic, there is much to be desired. if the above were a proper argument then i could very ask you to tell me where it is said that noah was wearing clothes when he was preaching to the polytheists. in the absence of any such reference are we then to assume that he was going about preaching the words of god while completely naked? see how ridiculous an objection founded on such a premise becomes? the fact is that there is absolutely no reason to suppose that the children and adults did not drown as well for if they hadn't then the muslim deity would have informed us of this (lest we think that punished them for the sins of the polytheists---oh...wait).
You are correct that in terms of logic your argument that the verse implies that children died because of the inheritance of others has NO logic whatsoever nor have you any argument at all.
I have already asked you to provide evidence of where in the Qur'an does God state that a person was killed due to inheriting the sin of another person and you CANNOT provide a shred of evidence at all.
The Qur'an is clear that we are ALL absolutely responsible for ONLY our own sins, which are incurred by our direct acts. Others cannot transfer their sins to us, in order to have theirs erased or even reduced. Nor can we inherit sins from our relatives or our ancestors. No One will have to bear the Sins of Another!
You still have not answered my question Sol According to the concept of blood atonement of sin why are babies and unborn babies who die in their infancy destined for HELL? I still want an answer to this disturbing concept.
You have also failed once again to provide ANY evidence to back up your position regarding the teaching of the atonement of sin and have been overwhelmed by evidence proving the fact that the teaching of the atonement of sin was NEVER taught by ANY prophet nor was it ever taught by Jesus, the Christian deity or the Bible.
There is NO doubt that the doctrine of original sin clashes with man's irresistible convictions of justice that, even when men like yourself believe and teach the doctrine, they cannot escape the fact that it is unjust and in the back of your mind there is no doubt that you know this and acknowledge it but instead would rather remain blind to it.
Clearly there is a fundamental problem with this troubling concept and one which you clearly would like to divert away from.