Ansar Al-'Adl
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Salaam
Atheist think about Allah all the time too.
Zulkiflim said:Salaam
Atheist think about Allah all the time too.
Wrong! This Athiest only thinks about people!
There are plenty of folk whom in essential Spirit are in Allah but whom disregarded what they have been taught to mind of Allah. Most commonly only because they were initially taught incorrectly. It is very difficult to change a persons education. Thinking in Allah is a sort of consciousness that is the simplicity of knowing beyond every possiblity of doubt.
If you know any matter as provably true and unable to be disproven; then when you are knowing that you are in Allah. This is a part of the definition of Allah.
It is why Islam wins.
I did not quite understand how the connection was made here between "violence" and "clarity of thought" or writing with "coherence". The issue of "violence" is one thing: where it can be clarified that unjust killing is forbidden and that just because permission to fight is given, this does not mean barbarianism or calling for wars whenever possible. But what does this have to do with clarity of thought or writing with coherence? The verse is written plain and clear for all to comprehend; perhaps what is required is knowledge on behalf of the reader. A schoolchild might be confused by a writing of shakespeare, but does it mean that the work is written incoherently... or is it more likely to be the case that the child who knows little about shakespeare requires an explanation from a teacher?If you want to find peaceful verses from the Qur'an, you will find them; if you want to find violent verses, you will find those too. It is strange that, among god's many perfections, clarity of thought, or the ability to write a coherent narrative (which most people are able to do by the time they reach secondary school) are not among them.
I did not quite understand how the connection was made here between "violence" and "clarity of thought" or writing with "coherence".
The issue of "violence" is one thing: where it can be clarified that unjust killing is forbidden and that just because permission to fight is given, this does not mean barbarianism or calling for wars whenever possible. But what does this have to do with clarity of thought or writing with coherence?
The verse is written plain and clear for all to comprehend; perhaps what is required is knowledge on behalf of the reader.
A schoolchild might be confused by a writing of shakespeare, but does it mean that the work is written incoherently... or is it more likely to be the case that the child who knows little about shakespeare requires an explanation from a teacher?
The falsity of such a notion is something that I have clearly exposed in the following seventy-plus-page refutation:My point was that having the supreme lawgiver of the universe alternately calling for peace and then violence is liable to give rise to great confusion.
I'm sorry but that is frankly rubbish. If that were the case then confusion would abound regardless of the era we are living in. But 'confusion' did not abound in such matters until only recent developments in world affairs and it is due to the prevalence of sheer ignorance amongst the masses concerning 'Ulûm Al-Qur'ân (sciences of the Qur'an). The 'current world-picture' is the result of sociopolitical conflicts and developments in various regions of the world. It is not the result of religious confusion; consider the fact that acts of terror have been condemned unanimously by all Muslim scholars - i.e. those with real knowledge of the Qur'an and Sunnah. Once educated, hundreds have abandoned their former views [*]. Others may resist changing their views due to their emotional attachment to their previous ideas, not due to their failure to comprehend the evidence provided.The evidence that it has caused confusion is all around us if we look at the current world-picture.
If someone has sufficient knowledge about the verses of the Qur'an, the prophetic teachings of Muhammad pbuh, the arabic language, principles of logic, etc. then they would have no problem understanding the directives. But most people don't. Tafsîrs do not bring interpretations for verses out of the blue! They follow very strict principles, the most fundamental of which is that different parts of the Qur'an explain eachother. So the tafsîr of one verse will quote other verses in the Qur'an on the same subject to show the reader how the Qur'an itself elucidates the topic. As such, tafsîr in no way contradicts the clarity of the Qur'an but in fact as a standing testimony to the greatness of its clarity.If the Qur'an actually was written with clarity, there would be no need for the scholars to work besides giving advice on practical issues as they arise. The whole tafsir industry would be redundant, surely, if the book's message was 'written plain and clear for all to comprehend'.
First, the vast majority of english translations suffer from serious flaws. You can list a dozen translations for me and I could show you the ignorance, blatant bias, distortions, etc. of the translator. There are a few exceptions that are better than the others such as Saheeh Int'l and F. Malik, although none are perfect.However, we're talking about coherency here, and this can surely be judged from translations, unless we have serious doubts about the quality of the translation.
Dawkins SERIOUSLY compromises his credibility by relying on anonymous sources over the internet who are notorious for their bigoted views and obscene attacks on Islam and Muslims!! It is certainly audacious on Dawkins part to attempt to comment on the detailed Islamic sciences of An-Nâsikh wal Mansûkh, Takhsîs, etc. without even a basic understanding of these bodies of knowledge! Could he not have cited some classical sources on this issue or at the very least quoted the explanations of some contemporary scholars? I've already addressed this issue in my article on abrogation:In his book, Dawkins makes the bold assertion that early Islamic scholars found the Qur'an to be a document filled with contradictions, and so invented the concept of abrogation.
As we can see, this does not negate God's inerrancy in any way.With regards to abrogation (Ar. naskh), it is a confirmed Islamic doctrine in the Qur'an. Since the Qur'an was revealed gradually over a period of twenty-three years, the legal rulings were not imposed on its adherents all at once. Rather, it gave them time to grow in faith and become accustomed to Islam. As Shaykh Abu Ammaar Yasir Qadhi mentions:Among the blessings of Allaah to the Companions is that He revealed to them the laws of Islaam gradually, and thus made it easier for them to adopt these laws. Initially, there were no specific laws of halaal and haraam. The Companions during the Makkan stage were being trained spiritually so that they could form the nucleus of the future Muslim state in Madeenah. Once they had passed this stage, Allaah then completed the revelation of the sharee'ah in gradual steps, so that they could adapt to the lifestyle of Islaam.(Qadhi, An Introduction to the Sciences of the Qur'aan, Al-Hidaayah Publishing and Distribution 1999, p. 86)And as Makkee ibn Abee Taalib (d. 1035CE) mentioned regarding abrogation:And this (meaning naskh) is from Allah, and is meant to be for the betterment of His worshippers. So, He commands them with a ruling at a specific time, since He knows that it will be for their betterment for that particular time, but He already knows that this command will be removed from them at a later time, since at this later time that particular ruling will not be for their benefit. (An-Nahaas, p. 116.)Thus, abrogation does not imply any imperfection whatsoever on the part of God, as critics allege. It does not mean that God made a mistake or that he didn't foresee an event. Rather, God knew in advance, and intended to send temporary laws for the early Muslims that would later be abrogated once the Muslim society became established.It is analogous to a Professor who asks his students to perform 30 minutes of studying everyday for the first week. During the second week, he 'abrogates' his initial command and asks his students to perform 1 hour of studying every day. The Professor did not make a mistake initially, nor did he react to an unforeseen event. Rather, he had always planned to give a lighter load the first week to his students, and then increase the workload the next week because he knew they would be ready for it. In fact, he had his plan for the entire course written down and recorded. So when he initially gave the order to perform 30 minutes of homework, he knew that he would later abrogate this command.Similarly, Allah initially gave some rulings that were later abrogated, but He knew and intended
That is actually a very simple issue; see my quick explanation here:(e.g. should Muslims take non-Muslims as friends?)
I think the media contributes to this notion amongst westerners, that there is a prevalent disagreement on verses of peace and violence amongst Muslim scholars. That is false.on issues such as violence (where many Muslims disagree on the interpretations of verses)?
I think you may have taken my analogy too literally and considered it too deeply. I mentioned Shakespeare because I was trying to give the example in a familiar setting for you, not that I actually wanted to compare the Qur'aan with Shakespeare's writings. It could have been replaced with any other book, and my point was that a failure to understand does not automatically mean there is fault with the 'author'.This is an unusual question, and an even stranger analogy.
The major flaw I've noticed in your arguments is that you immediately assume the infallibility of the human mind in interpreting scripture, such that any percieved dissonance in directives is immediately attributed to ambiguity in the scripture.
Don't you think it is possible that some people may purposefully interpret a directive in a way that suits themselves?
It is not fair to always attribute such divergent results to insufficient clarity in the instructions, though that may be a cause.
The falsity of such a notion is something that I have clearly exposed in the following seventy-plus-page refutation:
Commonly Misquoted Verses and Narrations
The problem is not that the Qur'an provides contradictory directives; the problem is that people MISQUOTE and MISTRANSLATE the Qur'an, rob its passages of their context, and ignore the methodology that it has outlined itself for its interpretation.
I'm sorry but that is frankly rubbish.
If that were the case then confusion would abound regardless of the era we are living in. But 'confusion' did not abound in such matters until only recent developments in world affairs and it is due to the prevalence of sheer ignorance amongst the masses concerning 'Ulûm Al-Qur'ân (sciences of the Qur'an).
It is not the result of religious confusion; consider the fact that acts of terror have been condemned unanimously by all Muslim scholars - i.e. those with real knowledge of the Qur'an and Sunnah.
If someone has sufficient knowledge about the verses of the Qur'an, the prophetic teachings of Muhammad pbuh, the arabic language, principles of logic, etc. then they would have no problem understanding the directives. But most people don't.
Tafsîrs do not bring interpretations for verses out of the blue! They follow very strict principles, the most fundamental of which is that different parts of the Qur'an explain eachother. So the tafsîr of one verse will quote other verses in the Qur'an on the same subject to show the reader how the Qur'an itself elucidates the topic. As such, tafsîr in no way contradicts the clarity of the Qur'an but in fact as a standing testimony to the greatness of its clarity.
First, the vast majority of english translations suffer from serious flaws. You can list a dozen translations for me and I could show you the ignorance, blatant bias, distortions, etc. of the translator.
With regards to abrogation (Ar. naskh), it is a confirmed Islamic doctrine in the Qur'an.
As we can see, this does not negate God's inerrancy in any way.
That is actually a very simple issue; see my quick explanation here:
http://www.islamicboard.com/refutations/30728-non-muslims-friends.html?highlight=friends#post532564
I think the media contributes to this notion amongst westerners, that there is a prevalent disagreement on verses of peace and violence amongst Muslim scholars. That is false.
Among scholars there is a majority concensus, but not unanimity. Among ordinary Muslims there is widespread disagreement. True?
Of course; in general, ambiguity of the text itself could be a reason for confusion, but I've explained previously why I feel this is not the case with Islam.I don't assume the human mind is infallible in interpreting any text, unless we're talking about some variant of reader-response theory. However, when a book of guidance is interpreted in different ways, it's possible that ambiguity is a cause of this. [...]
We agree that it may be a cause, then.
Okay, let's take an example. In august last year, on the radio an anti-islamist alleged that the injunction "wipe out the infidels to the last" was found in verse 8:7. However, anyone who looks at verse 8:7 would find that the Qur'an - speaking in the context of God's victory to the Muslims at the Battle of Badr - states that this happened because God had intended to cut off the root of the disbelievers. There is no injunction here at all, much less a universal injunction for muslims to kill all infidels to the last, as the critic put it.Ansar, I'm sure you deserve nothing but respect for the articles you've produced, but essentially what you're doing is attempting to explain why the Qur'an, on many, many occasions, does not actually say what it appears to say. Can we agree that we're not dealing here with a text that is clear for the ordinary reader?
I mean that no one with sufficient knowledge has found it confusing or incoherent. For instance, if something doesn't have sufficient knowledge to realize that pigs do not live underwater, they would find the prohibition on pigs to be incoherent in light of the permissibility of sea food. Don't you agree?Do you mean that no-one ever found the Qur'an confusing and incoherent until now?
Well all Muslim scholars agree that suicide is forbidden, which is what the Qur'an very clearly states. What some individuals suggest is that what has become known as 'suicide bombings' does not constitute 'suicide' since that is not the intent of the person involved. So the controversy is over the situation, not the clarity of the Qur'anic text.Really? Are you suggesting that all Muslim scholars have a unanimously agreed position on suicide bombing, for instance?
It is useful because it can and has been used successfully by laymen and scholars to implement Islam into their lives and guide their spiritual relationship with God and social relationships amongst human beings. The vast majority of the time, one can quote a verse on a subject without needing to cite all relevant verses for a deeper understanding. I'm sure the forum provides ample evidence of this.So if the Qur'an can't be used to explain anything without recourse to abundant explanation of itself first, how can it be useful?
I think it is because there are so many different lessons and reflections one can draw from it. To give an example, when Islam encourages effective use of one's time, there is so much one can write about time management skills, its importance, its meaning, its application to different tasks, and so on. Detailed commentary does not necessitate ambiguity in the original text, though that may sometimes be the case. As another example, when the Qur'an enjoins prayer, one could write a mountain of volumes on all the topic related to prayer examining it from spiritual, social, societal, legal, judicial, political, technical, lingusitc, [etc. etc.] perspectives.The more that is written about a book, the less of a case there is for claiming it to be clear and unambiguous.
It is explained with recourse to the Sunnah which the Qur'an endorses as the elucidation of its verses.Where is it explained in the Qur'an? Anywhere more fully than 2:106 and 16:101?
I don't think the text is confusing.Right - how could god create such a confusing text on such a simple issue?
Maybe not as widespread as you might be think, but I would agree that it is easier to find disagreements on such issues amongst less educated Muslims, which goes back to ignorance as I mentioned earlier.Among scholars there is a majority concensus, but not unanimity. Among ordinary Muslims there is widespread disagreement. True?
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