Peace ,Euthyphro
Salaam, Al-Manar, and apologies for the long time between posts. As much as I love discussing the gospels, this had to take a back seat for awhile so I could catch up on things I had to do in the "real world"!
That is a wise thing.....
Ignoring the real world and addiction to books, reading etc... Could be a damage to one's life....
Real life should have the priority always.. I'm afraid my addiction to
Reading and writing will affect me once I will have a stable family life....
I hope to deal with this matter with wisdom inshaAllah....
I strongly recommend the exegesis of R.T. France for this passage (and indeed Matthew as a whole) in his commentary "The Gospel of Matthew" (New International Commentary on the New Testament). France interprets the apocalyptic imagery (note that this is clearly symbolic language) in v. 29-31 on the basis of its allusions with Old Testament passages in Isaiah and Daniel (each passage being related to God's earlier judgment on pagan cities and nations).
I think some direct quotations from the exegesis of R.T. France ,would help the readers of the post to get the full image?...
I find John Wenham's comments on the matter helpful
And I found no commentary,theory that solved such serious problem ....
John Wenham use the multiple visits theory ,but the fact such theory been refuted totally :
Theskepticalreview said:
This early-departure quibble is nothing but another straw that inerrantists have grabbed to try to find consistency in the maze of inconsistencies that run throughout the resurrection narratives.
they try hopelessly to make John's Mary Magdalena consistent with the Mary Magdalena in Matthew's account
Is it is possible that Mary M left the tomb before she heard the angel's message?
The grammatical structure of Matthew's narrative requires readers to understand that Mary Magdalene was present from 28:1 through 28:10, and so she had to have both heard the angel announce the resurrection and experienced the personal encounter with Jesus after the women had run from the tomb. "Matthew" named only Mary Magdalene and the other Mary in his narrative; therefore, the reference to "the women" whom the angel spoke to in verse 5 by necessity had to include Mary Magdalene, and the plural pronouns they and them thereafter, which referred back to "the women," also, by grammatical necessity, had to include Mary Magdalene. No other conclusion can be obtained from the grammatical structure of this passage.
Matthew 28:1 Now after the Sabbath, as the first day of the week began to dawn, Mary Magdalene and the other Mary came to see the tomb. 2 And behold, there was a great earthquake; for an angel of the Lord descended from heaven, and came and rolled back the stone from the door, and sat on it. 3 His countenance was like lightning, and his clothing as white as snow. 4 And the guards shook for fear of him, and became like dead men. 5 But the angel answered and said to Mary Magdalene and the other Mary, "Do not be afraid, for I know that you seek Jesus who was crucified. 6 He is not here; for He is risen, as He said. Come, see the place where the Lord lay. 7 And go quickly and tell His disciples that He is risen from the dead, and indeed He is going before you into Galilee; there you will see Him. Behold, I have told you." 8 So Mary Magdalene and the other Mary went out quickly from the tomb with fear and great joy, and ran to bring His disciples word. 9 And as Mary Magdalene and the other Mary went to tell His disciples, behold, Jesus met Mary Magdalene and the other Mary, saying, "Rejoice!" So Mary Magdalene and the other Mary came and held Him by the feet . 10 Then Jesus said to Mary Magdalene and the other Mary, "Do not be afraid. Go and tell My brethren to go to Galilee, and there they will see Me."
he grammatical structure of Matthew's text will not allow this early departure of Mary Magdalene or the other Mary. If she departed before "the angels popped in," then just who the hell were the women whom the angel spoke to in Matthew 28:5? The two Marys were the only women that Matthew mentioned in his narrative.
The grammatical structure makes it so that it's impossible to divorce Mary Magdalene from not only having been there the whole time but also, necessarily makes her one of the women who saw a vision of angels who said that Jesus was alive!
Aside from this, there is a fact that I have already established: if the gospel writers were indeed "inspired" by the omniscient, omnipotent "Holy Spirit," then they were not the ones deciding what to include and what to exclude. That decision was being made for them; otherwise, there would have been no logical purpose at all for the "Holy Spirit" to have "inspired" them.
what sense is the Bible the "word of God." If, for example, Mark wrote what Mark chose to select, then the gospel of Mark would not be "the word of God" but the word of Mark. If not, why not?
If the "inspiration" of the omniscient, omnipotent "Holy Spirit" did not so guide and direct the writers that what they wrote was truth, then what was the purpose of inspiration? Was the "Holy Spirit" just wasting his time exercising an influence called "inspiration" that accomplished nothing more than what they writers could have accomplished on their own through reliance on oral traditions and their own personal experiences and choices?
If the Bible is indeed "the word of God," as biblical inerrantists claim, then it can be the word of God only if it is the word of God and not the word of Isaiah or Jeremiah or John or Mark or the apostle Paul . If the gospel of Mark contains only what Mark knew from his own personal experiences or familiarity with "oral traditions" and included by choices that he himself made, then what was the purpose of divine "inspiration"?
If the gospel writers were indeed "inspired" by the omniscient, omnipotent "Holy Spirit," then they were not writing what they chose to write or what they knew from "oral traditions" or their own personal experiences but were writing what they were directed by the omni-one to write. If the apostles, when they were brought before kings, did not speak their own words but what the "spirit of the Father" spoke through them, then why, when they were writing the New Testament, did they not write what the Holy Spirit was writing through them? Unless this was the case, then the gospel of Mark was not "the word of God" but the word of Mark, and the gospel of Matthew was not "the word of God" but the word of Matthew. If not, why not?
1. By names, who were “the women” who went to the tomb in Matthew’s narrative?
2. What is your textual basis for this answer?
3. If you excluded Mary Magdalene from your answer to number 1, what was your textual basis for this exclusion.
4. By names, who were “the women” whom the angel told that Jesus had risen (v:5)?
5. If you excluded Mary Magdalene from your answer to number 4, what was your textual basis for this exclusion?
6. By names, who were “the women” who ran from the tomb and encountered the resurrected Jesus (vs:8-10).
7. If you excluded Mary Magdalene from your answer to number 6. what was your textual basis for this exclusion?
8. If you included Mary Magdalene in your answers, how do you explain Mary Magdalene’s telling Peter and John that the body of Jesus had been stolen if she had by this time encountered both the angel and the risen Jesus?
Secondly, Matthew's use of Isaiah 7:14. Of course, this passage originally referred to Ahaz's son but like with many of the passages Matthew quotes, he is using the typology of a previous prophecy and applying it to the present. This was (and is) a common way to use prophetic passages in Scripture.
There is something positive and another negative from your part
The positive thing is that you (as few Christians) respected the context and wasn't seduced by the common way bible apologetics try to defend the passage and insisting on the claim that it simply refers to future fulfillment.....
The negative thing is that you resort to a new apologetic dodge to risk the gospel writers...
Their argument is that: if A deceptive dishonest interpretation been used by some Jews in the past and been accepted then, we as modern readers should accept it as well….
In other words they try to prove biblical inerrancy by assuming inerrancy
Let me elaborate more for the readers
And let me also introduce some Quranic material which is closely related to the serious critical point we are discussing now:
The Holy Quran affirms the human tampering with the bible ,It condemns those who write from their own mind a material claiming it to be inspired from God
Holy Quran 6:93 Who can be more wicked than one who inventeth a lie against Allah, or saith, "
I have received inspiration," when he hath received none.
Holy Quran Then woe to those
who write the Book with their own hands, and then say: "This is from God," to traffic with it for miserable price! - Woe to them for what their hands do write, and for the gain they make thereby.
Though the previous verses condemn the general act of fabrication to the word of God…
The following verses highlight a special kind of tampering, it is a device been used basically by the Jews:
Holy Quran 5:41 O Messenger. let not those grieve thee, who race each other into unbelief: (whether it be) among those who say "We believe" with their lips but whose hearts have no faith; or it be
among the Jews,- men who will listen to any lie,- will listen even to others who have never so much as come to thee.
They change the words from their (right) times and places
The accusation is clear; it is the game of playing with words applying them to the wrong time and place ….
Such technique is called Pesher:
www.encyclopedia.com said:
Pesher Hebrew for ‘commentary’ and particularly used for commentaries on the OT in the Dead Sea scrolls, which looked for hidden meanings in the text which were seen to apply to and to justify the community's way of life. The NT use of OT texts has some similarity with this method: over and above the original sense, a passage is said to have a special meaning for the present time (e.g. 1 Cor. 10: 11). Another, similar, method of interpretation was midrash (‘study’), which was essentially oral exposition in the synagogue to elucidate difficulties.
Marilyn J. Lundberg said:
A Pesher is a kind of commentary on the Bible that was common in the community that wrote the Dead Sea Scrolls. This kind of commentary is not an attempt to explain what the Bible meant when it was originally written, but rather what it means in the day and age of the commentator, particularly for his own community. In the Isaiah Pesher, or commentary on the book of Isaiah, a verse or verses from Isaiah are quoted. Then the commentary begins, often introduced by the word "pesher," or "the interpretation of the word..." If we were to write a commentary in this way today we might quote a bible verse and then say, "and the meaning of the verse is..." and go on to show the significance of the verse for our own church, synagogue, or society.
We know from other scrolls at Qumran that the people who wrote many of the scrolls had serious conflicts and disagreements with the religious leaders in Jerusalem over the proper way to conduct worship in the Temple. Most scholars think that the community of the Dead Sea Scrolls was led by a group of priests who thought that the Jerusalem priests were corrupt. The group at Qumran therefore started their own community in which they tried to live pure and righteous lives, away from the corrupting influence of Jerusalem.
The Jewish Christians of Matthew's community believed that in
following the teaching of Jesus the messiah they were the authentic Jews
and the “true 1srael.”" Yet Matthew and his community also seem to
realize that their viewpoint is not the dominant one and that the Pharisaic
perspective was beginning to hold sway in “formative Judaism"-thus
the hostility and urgency of the gospel in attacking the Jewish leaders and
Claiming righteousness for those who would follow Jesus.
The intention of Matthew page,23 By David E. Garland
-
The eleven Matthian editorial quotations of the Old Testament, should be understood as pesher treatments of the Old Testament, And in dealing with them, the following factors should be constantly kept in mind (1) the Jewish concepts of corporate solidarity and typological correspondences in history (2) the Christian convictions of eschatological fulfillment and messianic presence (3) the treatment of certain prophecies and biblical events in the analogous eschatological and charismatic community at Qumran :and (4)
the realization that prior to the standardization of the consonantal text at jamina there probably exited more versions and recessions of the old testament than are now extant ,as the discoveries at Qumran seem to indicate …..
Biblical exegesis in the apostolic period, page,127 By Richard N. Longenecker
- The community which the gospel writers belong to, though being a Jewish group but just as the Qumran group applied quotations from the book of Habakkuk to their founder (the teacher of righteousness) they were convinced that these prophecies found their fulfillments and their ultimate meaning in this person and the community he founded. The quotations they used in the book of Habakkuk indicate that the Qumran group felt free to adapt and shape the text in the light of their convictions about its fulfillment .
this type of pesher method is what Matthew and his school exercised with the formula quotations. Matthew’s school shaped and rendered these key quotations to fit the contours of their traditions (a mixture of true and false hearsay accounts) about Jesus and his teachings.
What are they saying about Matthew?p,230 By Donald Senior
- The pesher like methods (which is condemned clearly in the Quran) is found wherever you find human desires and a purpose of indoctrination…..once you find a quest for religious legitimacy and status, once you find either modifying the text, and if not possible then to twist, distort, pervert, and concoct its verses as expediency dictated…. Such crime of deception in the name of religion have been practiced by the Jews, Christians and even in the Sufi sect who make The division of textual knowledge into exoteric, or manifest, esoteric, or hidden …. Thuse their priests interpret the Qur'anic verses in ways not only different from the apparent meanings, but contradict them.
- There are only two options to Christians:
Literal or nonliteral interpretation .If the literal method is accepted, one thereby falsifies the New Testament use of the Old Testament .
If one accepts a nonliteral approach, then any interpretation is possible, and the whole operation becomes meaningless.
Anthony Collins
-The true colors of the creators of Christianity come through in their entire radiant splendor. Examples of their perfidious display of propagandistic propensities are abundantly evident to anyone with a reasonably critical eye....
we have provided more than enough evidence to prove that NT writers have misquoted, misinterpreted, twisted, distorted, perverted, misapplied and misunderstood a sizable number of OT verses. They have even gone so far as to manufacture OT verses that don't even exist. Anyone who looks for objective scholarship in the field of biblical apologetics has embarked upon a journey into the realm of myth and fantasy in which people search for the nonexistent. Nothing is so biased as someone whose heart precedes his head, whose desire precedes his discretion, whose wish precedes his wisdom..
Encyclopedia of Biblical Errancy
And finally the Quranic advice :
5:77 Say: "O people of the Book! exceed not in your religion the bounds (of what is proper), trespassing beyond the truth, nor follow the vain desires of people (the gospel writers and the desires of their deviant communities)who went wrong in times gone by,- who misled many, and strayed (themselves) from the even way.
Peace and guidance