How is it that Gabriel is with us, and in us for ever...if Gabriel is the Holy Spirit? Come on Salam, let's get some real interaction with the text.
When we think about the Holy Spirit, we say that it is in
all of us. It is in many places at once, and is not constrained by any limits. That's basic Holy Spirit theology. The burden of proof is not on ME to prove that it is impossible. It is on YOU. It is not specified as impossible in the text, and you are rejecting it solely on the basis of distaste, not that it is textually impossible. This means that you are
isogetically reading your distaste for particular interpretations into the text, and not even specifying what natural basis you might have for making such an isogetical reading (and I am honest enough to realize that
everyone isogetically reads into the text--it's called translation).
The fact that you have not yet proven that it is impossible is apparent in your speech. This is why you keep saying "how is it possible" instead of proving how it is not possible. If the holy spirit is in all of us (and in the Father), then it is not constrained by limits. Nothing in this precludes it from also taking physical form.
Moreover, you and I both know that there are preachers who have argued that when we see "3 figures" in the OT, they are F, S, HS. Look at Genesis 19--you have surely heard this interpretation. We need to grow some balls and conviction and realize that if a textual interpretation can be true when we like it and are familiar with it, it can also be true when it seems strange and unfamiliar. You who accept bodily incarnation of the Holy Spirit in the OT figures reject it when I link it to the Qu'ran. What's the basis for this inconstancy?
You can only make this assertion if you ignore the text of Scripture. You can take the article out. I am not making the point that it just doesn't read well.
I'm saying that you are not conscious of simple linguistic rules--the ones you yourself follow in your own language when you speak and which (as far as I know) all languages follow. I don't know of any languages which exhibit personal names with articles, and certainly I have no reason to believe that Aramaic does this.
Q:"Who is the king?" A:"George V"
Q: "Who is the president?" A: "Barack Obama"
Q: "Who is the Holy Spirit?" A: "Gabriel"
These are all linguistically correct responses. If we were to replace the names of these improper noun referents with their respective Proper nouns, the linguistically correct rendering is:
"George V is the king."
"Gabriel is the Holy Spirit."
Notice how we don't say "The Gabriel is the Holy Spirit," because that is incorrect according to basic grammatical rules.
Or, if you were given a worksheet by a teacher which had these sentences:
"The president speaks softly and carries a big stick."
Fill in the blank with the proper name answer to the question:
"___________ speaks softly and carries a big stick."
Answer? I'll tell you what it's not! It's not "The Teddy Roosevelt!"
Lol. This is called Universal Grammar. And, unless someone shows me that proper names have an article in Aramaic, I'm rejecting your interpretation as unawareness of the basic rules of grammar which we all follow. One of my majors here at school is English and I am done with it. I have taken linguistics courses and courses on textual criticism and the theory of textual criticism, and what I have written above is firmly based in linguistic and literary theory and knowledge of the way language works. If you apply your same rules of interpretation to your daily speaking and reading, you will find out that you will no longer be able to coherently respond to or understand any language you interact with.
Peace