Thanks. I see your reference.You presented to me two different versions of translation of Mat 15:24, but it
still shows that Jesus (PBUH) was sent exclusively for the lost sheep of Israel.
To prove this claim further, we should refer to the context of the verse
21 Leaving that place, Jesus withdrew to the region of Tyre and Sidon.
22 A _*Canaanite woman from that vicinity came to him, crying out, “Lord, Son of
David, have mercy on me! My daughter is demon-possessed and suffering terribly.”*_
23 _*Jesus did not answer a word. *_So his disciples came to him and urged him,
“Send her away, for she keeps crying out after us.”
24 He answered, “_*I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel.”*_
If Jesus (PBUH) was sent to mankind, why ignore the woman just because she was
from Canaan?
The disciples lacked understanding at that time. The same as when several wanted
Jesus to bring fire from the sky to consume the unbelievers (Luke 51-56). They
also lacked understanding to believe his message of his death too.
But if you look at verses 25-28 in Matthew 15, the woman's persistent faith
resulted in Jesus acknowledging her. He praised her faith and healed her daughter.
"Then came she and worshipped him, saying, Lord, help me. But he answered and
said, It is not meet to take the children's bread, and to cast [it] to dogs. And
she said, Truth, Lord: yet the dogs eat of the crumbs which fall from their masters'
table. Then Jesus answered and said unto her, O woman, great [is] thy faith: be it
unto thee even as thou wilt. And her daughter was made whole from that very hour".
On a similar thing, also see Christ's interaction with the Samaritan woman and
her village (John 4:7-30).
The same expression (words)) I use for Jesus (which you deny me) is the same youThere are many verses in the Qur'an where Allah (swt) talks to the children of
Israel, the Arabs and also Mankind.
Here's one verse which proves our Prophet (PBUH) was sent for all the worlds (not
just mankind, but also the jin-kind)
And We have not sent you, [O Muhammad], except as a mercy to the worlds. [21:107]
Also, there is a Hadith where the Prophet (PBUH) himself states he was sent to
mankind and not just the Arabs.
*Every Prophet used to be sent to his nation only _but I have been sent to all
*mankind_.*' (Translation of Sahih Bukhari, Rubbing hands and feet with dust
*(Tayammum), Volume 1, Book 7, Number 331)"
use of Muhammad (and you wish me to accept you).
Even though the Quran/Hadith states that Muhammad was sent FOR the worlds, I hope
we can agree that he was not sent TO the worlds.
What is meant by the phrase "to the worlds?"
As I wrote before, Jesus was only sent TO the children of Israel, but his
message is FOR all mankind. That is why he told his disciples, "But ye shall receive
power, after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto
me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost
part of the earth".
I know that Muslims accept Jesus as a only a prophet of God but I don't know
any Muslim who would say his message was only for the children of Israel during his
lifetime and that this spreading of the gospel ceased with Muhammad. As the words
of Jesus mention, his message was to be spread around the world - and
this message is that he came to seek and to save the lost.
Peace,
Jim