When was the Bible corrupted?

MustafaMc, just consider that either your response was so good that Satan had to prevent it from being seen, or .... so poor that God is giving you a second chance to write it again.
Since I seriously doubt the first is true, I will accept the second and try again. I had put a lot of thought into my first reply and had even edited it more just before the crash, but why cry over spilt milk?

The Question by Keltoi was, "What criteria do I use to accept a scripture as divinely inspired?"

I will use the Quran as an example.

First and foremeost in importance is the character of the person bringing the so-called divine revelation and whether that person can be believed as a Messenger of Allah (swt). From what I have read about the biography of Prophet Muhammad (saaws), "The Sealed Nectar" and the 2 volume "A Biography of the Prophet of Islam in the Light of the Original Sources", I believe that Muhammad (saaws) was a prophet of Allah. To read of the difficulties that he endured and the humiliations that he suffered in the early years and to read about the obstacles and difficulties that he overcame only to establish Islam as the religion in an area of rampant idolatory, leads me to believe that he was a Messenger, Prophet and Servant of the Most High. To see the austere life he led despite having access to immense wealth in the latter years, shows me that he did not have selfish, materialistic motives. To accept one as a Messenger of Allah is not to be done flippantly, but with utmost seriousness.

Next in importance is that what the Messenger of Allah spoke as revelation was accurately preserved. As the Quran was revealed, it was immediately written on whatever was available and it was memorized by many people. The revelation was used in the 5 daily prayers and it was repeated in its entirety during the month of fasting, Ramaddan. Since so many of the people who had memorized the Quran were being killed in battles after the death of Muhammad (saaws), Abu Bakr (ra) (first Caliph) had the scribes to assemble all of the recorded portions of the Quran together and assemble into a single book in the order that had been indicated by Muhammad. There is a clear distinction between divine revelation (Quran) and the every day speech and actions of Muhammad (Sunnah).

Finally, I would have to say aggreement of existing copies with ancient texts that are as close as possible to the original. I believe that there is an ancient copy of the Quran in Turkey and one of the former states of USSR that is in agreement with modern Quran. I believe these copies are 2 of the 12 copies made from the original by Othman (ra) (third Caliph).

Those are thoughts that come to my mind, but I reserve the right to modify as additional thoughts come to me.
 
One of the things that I see that has yet to be discussed is the relationship between inspiration (or lack thereof) and corruption. I want to suggest that there is none.

I'll let that thought sink in for a second, for I suspect there are many (perhaps not just Muslims, but Christians too) who would take issue with me regarding that statement. So, let me illustrate by creating a fictitious set of documents and we can see why this might be true.


Let us suppose that once upon a time some men wanted to record the events of an ancient king's life. Each of them took the time to write down their favorite stories about the king. Loving their king they wrote only the good things they could think of, and some of them even rather exaggerated the kings prowess in combat and his wisdom in leading his people. In their minds they weren't lying, but minor skirmishes were often blown up to be great victories. Nonetheless this was the record they recorded.

Such a record would hardly be considered inspired.
Few would consider it inerrant.
But are they corrupted??

Main Entry: cor·rupt
Pronunciation: k&-'r&pt
Function: verb
Etymology: Middle English, from Latin corruptus, past participle of corrumpere, from com- + rumpere to break -- more at REAVE

transitive verb
1 a : to change from good to bad in morals, manners, or actions; also : BRIBE b : to degrade with unsound principles or moral values
2 : ROT, SPOIL
3 : to subject (a person) to corruption of blood
4 : to alter from the original or correct form or version <the file was corrupted>

intransitive verb
1 a : to become tainted or rotten b : to become morally debased
2 : to cause disintegration or ruin

1)
If 2000 years later we had copies of copies of copies of those original writings and we were able to reliably determine (by means of the science of textual criticism) what was the most likely version of the text originally written, I would hold that the text of those stories about the king that are preserved and available for us today are not corrupted. They are not corrupted because they correctly preserve what the men originally wrote about the king. Whether the stories were true, grandiose exaggerations, or outright lies is not relevant to whether or not the text itself is corrupted.

The question of whether or not we can believe the stories these men have told with regard to the king is completely different from whether or not we can trust that the copy of the stories that was passed down for 2000 years is essentially the same as the story (true or false) that the men had written.


2)
It might be shown that the work of one of the King's servants is corrupted. One might find where future generations had altered one of the stories. But if it can be found where 1000 years later someone had added a story, and today we are able to recognize that addition to the story and note that it is an addition to the original, that means we are able to also note what the original was. In that case, while it might be true that the story was corrupted at one time in history, by making note of that alteration, one is still able today to read the story as it was originally written by the author. So, one would have to say that we still have available to us a uncorrupted version of that story today.

3)
There might be cases where in the process of copying by many different people that small changes were made in the text. And if these were continually copied it might become difficult to determine which of many different possible small variations in the text represents the original and which represent the alterations. Then one would in a strict sense have to say that the text was corrupted. However, that would not necessarily make the text unreliable. If the changes were observed to be relatively minor not effecting the content of the message, one might still feel that the essence of what was written was maintained. Also, with sufficient enough copies with enough history, one might be able to analyze them and the differences between then and work backward to determine when the changes occured and what it was they were changed from. Thus getting one closer to the original text. It might be possible to work back all the way to the original, or it might not. If not, those who were scholarly enough to do this process could indicate the remaining options for the most likely version and rate them in terms of the degree of certainty or uncertainty about each being the original form of the text. Thus those particular passages could be noted and the rest of the composition might be understood to be reliable.

4)
With more than one document to work with, it could be that the some of the writings by some of the men are better preserved than others. In this case it would be important NOT to talk about them all as a group (i.e, "The Stories of the King"), but to discuss each individual book independently of the others (i.e. "The Story of the King according to John", "The Story of the King according to Paul", "The Story of the King according to George" and "The Story of the King according to Ringo"). George might be corrupted. But that would not mean that Ringo was.


As we can see, we have not had to consider one way or the other whether John, Paul, George, and Ringo were themselves inspired when they wrote about the King. This question is a completely different question than the one of corruption. Corruption has to do with the quality of the text's preservation. Inspiration has to do with how the document was produced. And inerrancy is yet a third issue having to do with whether or not the document spoke the truth to begin with.

If the text we have today so corrupted that we cannot get back to what they actually wrote, it makes little different whether John, Paul, George, and Ringo were inspired or not. But likewise, asserting that because one doesn't like the works of John, Paul, George, and Ringo whether out of personal taste or because it doesn't match the work of the one you really consider to be the true King (Elvis) that they therefore are neither inspired nor inerrant misses the whole point of whether or not what we have received from them is corrupted or not.
 
Good points Grace Seeker. So then would we say that there is no known process of determining what is divinely inspired writing from simply reading the text in question?, at least not in a material sense? What I'm trying to say, is that when I read the NT I personally feel that it is divinely inspired, but could I point to a particular passage and state "Aww...that proves divine inspiration?" I don't think so. As with most things involving faith, it is a personal journey. What I feel is divinely inspired may not seem divinely inspired to another. So what we are really talking about when we discuss divine inspiration is opinion, an opinion formed in most cases by deep conviction, but opinion nonetheless.
 
The Bible was definitely corrupted even before the lifetime of the Holy Prophet (alaihi salaatu wa salaam). First of all, the entire New Testament is a plagiarization and most if not all of it cannot even be considered the words of Jesus. The Holy Quran tells us the Injeel was revealed directly to Jesus (alaihi salaam), but we cannot find that Gospel of Jesus anywhere in the table of contents for any Bible, we have four other gospels, attributed to four different writers, even though most contemporary Bible scholars are beginning to say that even those four gospel versions have anonymous authors. So from an Islamic perspective it is without a doubt that the Bible was corrupted even before the lifetime of Rasoolullah (alaihi salaatu wa salaam).

Astonishingly, from a Christian perspective, this is true as well, but for a different reason, which also holds true for the Islamic perspective. Christians seem to take pride in the fact that the earliest Greek new testament manuscripts, which are the source for every new testament contemporary translation are so abundant compared to other ancient documents, but they often conveniently forget that almost no two manuscripts are exact copies of eachother, but there is in fact such a broad scope in variations and alterations. If you pick up any NIV translation and look at the footnotes for the new testament, you will know that the translators had a difficult time picking and choosing which manuscript to rely on for their translation.

So I urge everyone to read the following very important information:

When one compares one manuscript to another, with the exception of the smallest fragments, no two copies agree completely in their wording. There has been an estimate of between 200,000 and 300,000 variations among all the manuscripts, which is more variations than words in the New Testament. The vast majority of these variations are errors made by scribes, and easily identified as such: an omitted word, a duplicate line, a misspelling, a rearrangement of words. Some variations involve apparently intentional changes, which can make it more difficult for scholars to determine whether they were corrections from better exemplars, harmonizations or ideologically motivated (Ehrman 2004, pp.480f)

These are the facts, and so no one can deny that the Bible was in a state of corruption during the lifetime of the Holy Prophet (alaihi salaatu wa salaam), not even the Christians.
 
Talha777 has now provided the Muslim version of points #1 & #3 in my story above, though he also added an additional charge of plagarization.
 
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I love to read, I have my own Bible (KJV- OT and NT), I have my own Torah and I own a Bhagwadgita (the Hindu book) too. From Bible, I pulled out some contradictions which are very interesting and so far Christians have not been able to satisfy me with a good reliable answer, maybe one of you could explain to me this:

*Contradiction #: 1 He is the S-on of G-d?
But Allah in Holy Qur'an says:"Lam Yalid Walum-yu lad
I am not begotten and I begetteth not", so whats the deal here??? and what are they trying to say???

*Contradiction #: 2 Eli Eli Lama Sabachthani, would he be saying this..?This was said to be called out by Jesus Christ pbuh while he was being crucified? Well, if, according to the Christians Jesus Christ pbuh was S-on of G-d, would he be crying this???

*Contradiction #: 3 Jesus Died for your Sins???
Oh No, need to change this, if my dad committed a murder before my birth, would the law be putting me into jail instead of my dad??? Nay, but what was the sin??? Furthermore it becomes a cause of stimulus for Christians to commit sins, no problema???

*Contradiction #: 4 Jesus was crucified???
One more mistake, hey, Prophets and Apostles are always appointed and sent by God to spread His message on earth. So when he appoints and sent him "duly authorized", it means that God takes the responsibility of his safety and well-being, right? So, I think this is added to gain sympathy from mases, right???

*Contradiciton #: 5 Jesus is G-d the Lord?
Again a very illogical statement. all Monotheistic religions believe in One God, One supreme being which is running the whole universe, so don't you think this contradicts the Monotheistic doctrines??? While God alone is the creator of heavens and earth and humans and river and plants, Jesus Christ would not have passed blasphemous remarks about himself being G*d.

Thanks
 
I love to read, I have my own Bible (KJV- OT and NT), I have my own Torah and I own a Bhagwadgita (the Hindu book) too. From Bible, I pulled out some contradictions which are very interesting and so far Christians have not been able to satisfy me with a good reliable answer, maybe one of you could explain to me this:

*Contradiction #: 1 He is the S-on of G-d?
But Allah in Holy Qur'an says:"Lam Yalid Walum-yu lad
I am not begotten and I begetteth not", so whats the deal here??? and what are they trying to say???

*Contradiction #: 2 Eli Eli Lama Sabachthani, would he be saying this..?This was said to be called out by Jesus Christ pbuh while he was being crucified? Well, if, according to the Christians Jesus Christ pbuh was S-on of G-d, would he be crying this???

*Contradiction #: 3 Jesus Died for your Sins???
Oh No, need to change this, if my dad committed a murder before my birth, would the law be putting me into jail instead of my dad??? Nay, but what was the sin??? Furthermore it becomes a cause of stimulus for Christians to commit sins, no problema???

*Contradiction #: 4 Jesus was crucified???
One more mistake, hey, Prophets and Apostles are always appointed and sent by God to spread His message on earth. So when he appoints and sent him "duly authorized", it means that God takes the responsibility of his safety and well-being, right? So, I think this is added to gain sympathy from mases, right???

*Contradiciton #: 5 Jesus is G-d the Lord?
Again a very illogical statement. all Monotheistic religions believe in One God, One supreme being which is running the whole universe, so don't you think this contradicts the Monotheistic doctrines??? While God alone is the creator of heavens and earth and humans and river and plants, Jesus Christ would not have passed blasphemous remarks about himself being G*d.

Thanks

You are simply imposing a Muslim perspective on a Christian doctrine.
 
In response to silkworm's numbered list.

#1. I'm aware of what the Qu'ran states, which seems to be a direct reference to the Gospel accounts. As Grace Seeker illustrated in another thread, Christians do not believe God physically "fathered" a child. Christians refer to Christ as the "Son of God" since he was concieved by the Holy Spirit. Luke 1:35 declares, "The angel answered, 'The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called the Son of God."

#2 I don't understand the sentence you quoted, but do you mean "Why hast thou forsaken me?"

#3 Jesus Christ suffered for the forgiveness of our sins. That does not equate to a free hand. To achieve salvation one must put one's faith in Jesus Christ, which would obviously mean following the Law of God. Christ's forgiveness does not mean we can go around killing, raping, or commit any other kind of evil, for to do so would be turning away from Christ.

#4 To Muslims, Jesus was a prophet. To Christians, Jesus was the human manifestation of God, who was sent to Earth for a specific purpose. That purpose was to take upon Himself the sins of the world.

#5 As Christians believe Christ to be One with God, there is no hint of polytheism. As for Christ referring to His deity, it can be found in numerous passages.

During His trial before the Jewish leaders, the High Priest demanded of Jesus, “I charge you under oath by the living God: Tell us if you are the Christ, the Son of God" (Matthew 26:63). Jesus responded, “Yes, it is as you say, ‘but I say to all of you: In the future you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One and coming on the clouds of heaven” (Matthew 26:64). The Jewish leaders responded by accusing Jesus of blasphemy (Matthew 26:65-66). Later, before Pontius Pilate, “The Jews insisted, ‘We have a law, and according to that law He must die, because He claimed to be the Son of God’” (John 19:7).

I and my Father are one. John 10:30

John 10:37-38 [37] Do not believe me unless I do what my Father does. [38] But if I do it, even though you do not believe me, believe the miracles, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father."

John 10:31-33 [31] Again the Jews picked up stones to stone him, [32] but Jesus said to them, "I have shown you many great miracles from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?" [33] "We are not stoning you for any of these," replied the Jews, "but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God."
 
No Keltoi, I am just letting you know my findings, you have the right to refute them.



But either way, it has nothing to do with the corruption of the text itself. Your list of "contradictions" relate only to your opinion that the author of the text was incorrect in what he asserted to be true.

I assert that these things are what the text has always stated to be true and that this message has been preserved without significant corruption to the present, so that one who reads the Bible today can reliably say that they are reading the same message that was conveyed by the Biblical writers when they penned their respective books.
 
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But you simply cannot ignore the fact that before 4th Century A.D. there were no separate entities named as "Christians" known to the world, there were no Churhces and the so-called Christians used to worship in synagogues and they had no "cross" that was making them different. Whenever they had their placws of worship they had "Star of David" on it.

I fyou think I am saying these things in a fluke, you'd better read "The History of Western Philosophy" by Bertrand Russell. I know that Bertrand Russell himself was and Atheist, but he was a historian too.
 
But you simply cannot ignore the fact that before 4th Century A.D. there were no separate entities named as "Christians" known to the world, there were no Churhces and the so-called Christians used to worship in synagogues and they had no "cross" that was making them different. Whenever they had their placws of worship they had "Star of David" on it.

I fyou think I am saying these things in a fluke, you'd better read "The History of Western Philosophy" by Bertrand Russell. I know that Bertrand Russell himself was and Atheist, but he was a historian too.


Acts 11:26 KJV And when he had found him, he brought him unto Antioch. And it came to pass, that a whole year they assembled themselves with the church, and taught much people. And the disciples were called Christians first in Antioch.

The Roman historian Tacitus recorded Nero blaming "Christians" for the great fire in Rome which occurred in AD64.
 
Means, simply you are dodging my question or whatever I said above

Keltoi answered your numbered list. I saw no reason to add to his answer.

I answered refuting the statements you wrote about the term Christian not being used until the fourth century, and churches not being in existence before the fourth century.
 
Means, simply you are dodging my question or whatever I said above

How did Don532 dodge what you said?. You said:

But you simply cannot ignore the fact that before 4th Century A.D. there were no separate entities named as "Christians" known to the world, there were no Churhces and the so-called Christians used to worship in synagogues and they had no "cross" that was making them different. Whenever they had their placws of worship they had "Star of David" on it.

I fyou think I am saying these things in a fluke, you'd better read "The History of Western Philosophy" by Bertrand Russell. I know that Bertrand Russell himself was and Atheist, but he was a historian too.


And Don pointed out that indeed there are numerous records of both the existance of churches and of the use of the term "Christians" to refer to a particular cult of people who believed in and worshipped one that was called Christ long before the 4th century A.D.

If Bertrand Russell said the things you are claiming he said, it is no wonder that he is remembered as many things: "Bertrand Arthur William Russell, 3rd Earl Russell, OM, FRS, (18 May 1872 – 2 February 1970), was a Welsh philosopher, logician, mathematician, advocate for social reform, and pacifist" (Wikipedia article), but an historian is not among them.

And if you and Russell are correct, then the books of the NT that you find to be so objectional were in use and frequently quoted by non-existant people who were part of a non-existant group. There was nothing that made them unique enough for Nero to blame them for the burnin of Rome or for others to have them thrown to the lions in the ampitheaters of Rome and elsewhere throughout the Rome empire.

I'm sorry to say it so bluntly, but your position has no standing in a scholarly world. Worse, even if it did, you still miss the point that it has no effect whatsoever on the question of the corruption or lack thereof of the NT texts be they written by Christians, Jews, Romans, or space aliens. What we have avaialable to us today appears to be a reliable transmission of what their authors wrote and conveyed to their readers.
 
One of the things that I see that has yet to be discussed is the relationship between inspiration (or lack thereof) and corruption. I want to suggest that there is none.

I'll let that thought sink in for a second, for I suspect there are many (perhaps not just Muslims, but Christians too) who would take issue with me regarding that statement. So, let me illustrate by creating a fictitious set of documents and we can see why this might be true.


.

To whom you direct that post?!! to muslims? Didn't we agree before that the proper title for this thread should have been (When was the preached message of Jesus corrupted?)

It seems that ,according to your post,all what busy your mind is the issue of textual preservation


Let me paraphrase what you posted:


Let us suppose that once upon a time some men wanted to record the events of Krishna's life. Each of them took the time to write down their favorite stories about Krishna. Loving their Krishna they wrote only the good things they could think of, and some of them even rather exaggerated Krishna's prowess in combat and his wisdom in leading his people. In their minds they weren't lying, but minor skirmishes were often blown up to be great victories. Nonetheless this was the record they recorded.

Such a record would hardly be considered inspired.
Few would consider it inerrant.
But are they corrupted??



1)
If more than 2000 years later we had copies of copies of copies of those original writings and we were able to reliably determine (by means of the science of textual criticism) what was the most likely version of the text originally written, I would hold that the text of those stories about Krishna that are preserved and available for us today are not corrupted. They are not corrupted because they correctly preserve what the men originally wrote about Krishna. Whether the stories were true, grandiose exaggerations, or outright lies is not relevant to whether or not the text itself is corrupted.

2)
It might be shown that the work of one of the Krishna's servants is corrupted. One might find where future generations had altered one of the stories. But if it can be found where 1000 years later someone had added a story, and today we are able to recognize that addition to the story and note that it is an addition to the original, that means we are able to also note what the original was. In that case, while it might be true that the story was corrupted at one time in history, by making note of that alteration, one is still able today to read the story as it was originally written by the author. So, one would have to say that we still have available to us a uncorrupted version of that story today.

3)
There might be cases where in the process of copying by many different people that small changes were made in the text. And if these were continually copied it might become difficult to determine which of many different possible small variations in the text represents the original and which represent the alterations. Then one would in a strict sense have to say that the text was corrupted. However, that would not necessarily make the text unreliable. If the changes were observed to be relatively minor not effecting the content of the message, one might still feel that the essence of what was written was maintained. Also, with sufficient enough copies with enough history, one might be able to analyze them and the differences between then and work backward to determine when the changes occured and what it was they were changed from. Thus getting one closer to the original text. It might be possible to work back all the way to the original, or it might not. If not, those who were scholarly enough to do this process could indicate the remaining options for the most likely version and rate them in terms of the degree of certainty or uncertainty about each being the original form of the text. Thus those particular passages could be noted and the rest of the composition might be understood to be reliable.

4)
With more than one document to work with, it could be that the some of the writings by some of the men are better preserved than others. In this case it would be important NOT to talk about them all as a group (i.e, "The Stories of Krishna"), but to discuss each individual book independently of the others (i.e. "The Story of Krishna according to Mahabharata", "The Story of Krishna according to Bhagavata Purana", "The Story of Krishna according to George" and "The Story of Krishna according to Ringo"). George might be corrupted. But that would not mean that Ringo was.


asserting that because one doesn't like the works of Mahabharata,, Harivamsa, George, and Ringo whether out of personal taste or because it doesn't match the work of the one you really consider to be the true Krishna that they therefore are neither inspired nor inerrant misses the whole point of whether or not what we have received from them is corrupted or not.


according to your line of reasoning,one could safely accept the story of Krishna and other incarnated gods ;Osiris,Atis etc,their deity,their resurrection etc....as long as only small variations in the errant text that was written by so called disciples of Krishna !!!....

Seeker,If you apply the same criterion ,you applied to the Bible...to all the so called sacred books, you would have dozens of true incarnated savoirs,based on the errant works ,that we accepted as reliable text as long as only small variations in their errant texts.
 
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Seeker,If you apply the same criterion ,you applied to the Bible...to all the so called sacred books, you would have dozens of true incarnated savoirs,based on the errant works ,that we accepted as reliable text as long as only small variations in their errant texts.

Close to true, but not quite.


According to my line of reasoning, if we applied the same criterion to all the other so called sacred books we would be able to say that the copy we have received of their sacred books is an uncorrupted version of their story as long as what they were able to pass along to us was a reliable text with only small variations in their exitant texts.

That would NOT be the same as saying that they story contained in the text was true. And I am not suggestiong that Muslims should agree with Christians that the stories that the Bible reports with regard to Jesus are in fact true. I'm only hoping that you will agree that the stories that have been preserved are indeed the stories that were believed and held to be true by the first generation of Christians. I am not claiming that they are the Injil of Jesus, only that they are the actual teaching of the first generation of the church which attempted to record what they thought was important for sharing with future generations.
 
I'm only hoping that you will agree that the stories that have been preserved are indeed the stories that were believed and held to be true by the first generation of Christians. .

If you mean by the first generation of Christians ,such branch of Christianity inside the circle of Athanasius of Alexandria,then we agree

but we have other branches of Christianity outside the circle of Athanasius of Alexandria...who have other concepts regarding Jesus and other texts too,
which was deemed to be heretical,or was unknown to the canonizers..

eg, the Gospel of Thomas which attests to a diversity of viewpoints in early Christianity,including very different understandings of Jesus,It offers the debates and struggles within early Christianity,assists in understanding early Christianity's relationship, and eventual split, with Judaism.

The author begins with (These are the sayings that the living Jesus spoke )

he made it clear that what counts, is the words that been preached,not Jesus himself....

he goes on recording what was transcribed from an oral tradition,mentions nothing regarding Trinity,crucifiction,resurrection ....

That is inconvenient to the Pauline church,and its obseesion with its own ( Hellenized Jesus ) agenda etc.....

Paul wrote, "And if Christ be not risen, then is our preaching vain, and your faith is also vain.(I Corinthians 15:14-15)

so How they would accept a text without (resurrection narratives).

in the first century,

1) EVERY CHURCH HAD ITS OWN DOCTRINE

2) EVERY CHURCH HAD ITS OWN SCRIPTURES.

Not until the first council did the people in Rome set what we see today as the standard christian theology. All those other early churches have been persecuted and killed for their different views.

in sum and substance,
it wouldn't be safe to claim that (4NT&Pauline epistles) are the stories that were believed and held to be true by the first generation of ALL Christians.
 
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