which defeats your point... you are demanding that we place what muslims thought and recorded of jews... over what jews thought and recorded of themselves.
very well. if we accept Chinese history without a 'fact check' from modern archaeology and from other sources (not necessarily western) then we accept as undisputed fact that after a period of ten thousand ten thousand years of rulership by primordial gods (the heavenly sovereign, the earthly sovereign and the human sovereign) a group of godmen came to rule china beginning with the 'yellow emperor' who came to power with a magic compass in 2697 and lived to 100 years before becomming immortal.
2) If one was to use your argument that we do not accept ones authenticity due to biases or cultural influence etc. then again - this means that WE CANNOT ACCEPT ANY HISTORY WHATSOEVER? Since nearly all of history has been put forward this way. Yes, there is the help of scientific advances, yet this isn't sufficient as a means to preserve history in its totality. The story surrounding the scientific evidences is what helps these archaeologists figure out what actually happened within that location at that time period in history.
you misunderstand me. we must accept that a community's biases will be a natural part of their history. that is why their history must be taken into account alongside other recorded histories and what the record we can uncover using modern techniques reveals. this provides a fuller, clearer picture devoid of some of the biases and nonsense.
Besides, I've given you strong evidences from the OT itself. If you doubt the OT, then that is your own loss. It is clear from passages which i did quote that the pious people were referred to as 'Gods children' and this is exactly what Christianity is based on!
no... you've given me your interpretation of the OT, a non Christian one, no less.
the Jews did apply the term 'Son of God' to various people in the OT, including King David... it is a variation of the term 'annointed' in that context. however it was used in an
entirely different manner than the term applied to Christ (obviously, since He was tried for blasphemy). my intuition is that the quran understands the difference... and when it accused the Jews of calling Ezra 'the son of God' the author of the quran meant 'in the same sense as the Christians,' i have that intuition because the quran speaks of both in the same breath. is this not reasonable?
regardless, your quotes from the bible are irrelevant. none of them is about Jews calling prophet
Ezra the Son of God. ask a jewish person why that would be peculiar... they will tell you it is because he wasn't David.
And similarly, it wouldn't be surprising if Jews interpreted their texts (yes, they have many sects with different interpretations also) in a way to label Uzayr/Ezra as a 'son of God' due to their utmost respect for him.
okay... but what surprises you or does not surprise you isn't evidence... it's restating the islamic opinion.
Using the points which i mentioned above, it becomes clear that the points discussed are valid. And that if you are to deny the history books which have narrations in, narrations which are supported by every narrator, along with his truthfulness etc. then we can rightly say that this did occur. If you doubt that - then yeah, we can finally conclude that you really don't have no history of your culture, your nation, nor even your religion.
you misunderstand my point. reread my response to your question about China and see the obvious parallel to islamic history. i'm not a nihilist, traditional cultures' histories have their place, especially when they are talking about their own culture (however in this case it is a muslims perspective of Jews, and you are disregarding the Jewish account of Jewish history).
i'm not going to accept islamic history with no strings attached simply because it's muslim. there are legitimate questions regarding the veracity of this information, in light of Jewish history and in light of what secular science has given us.
If you say that the OT calls against monotheism, since it mentions 'son of God' many times - then you are in a paradox. Either you accept that son of God is mentioned in the OT, or you deny it and therefore deny your own, aswell as the Jewish scripture.
Regards.
si, and so it does. but i have already explained the way it is used in different contexts, feel free to explore the issue further with
wikipedia. the question is not whether 'people have been called Son of God' before, but whether Ezra was called 'Son of God.' specifically if he was called 'Son of God' in a blasphemous context (since it means different things in different situations). you haven't demonstrated that.
to remind you, we are talking about
jewish history and not Christian theology. if you can find an example in the Bible of Ezra being called 'the Son of God' in the same sense as the NT by all means bring it to my attention.
que Dios te bendiga