Grace Seeker
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Now you are saying something that the Greek grammatical construct of John's writings prove that Jesus is God, in an altogether different sense than what Psalm 82 says about the Israelites: Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your Law, 'I have said you are gods' (John 10:34)
Please explain who these "gods" are, and why Jesus quoted this Psalm to justify his claim that he and the father are one (John 10:30). Upon hearing this claim of Jesus, his enemies began to stone him, accusing him of blasphemy. Now if Jesus really is God, the One and Only, he wouldn't have tried to justify himself or clarify what he meant, he would have simply said: "Yes I'm God, live with it" or something to that effect.
He didn't quote the Psalm to justify his statement that he and the Father are one. That is why I keep saying telling you that you are reading this whole thing wrong.
I have addressed it three times. I just haven't addressed it in a way which satisfies you. So, last time, because I leave on Wednesday for a week.Instead, we clearly see that Jesus clarified the nature of his claim by quoting Pslam 82. Until and unless you address this, you cannot use John 10:30 as proof that Jesus is God, one and the same with the "Father".
The use of Psalm 82 is a Jewish type of argument. The psalm is a warning to unjust judges to cease from unjust ways and to defend the poor and the innocent. In doing so, God speaks to these judges and God says, "I say that you are "gods", sons of the Most High, all of you." The judge is commissioned by God to judge men, he is therefore in essence like a god to other men. So, men who are merely in positions of authority as judges over other men are called sometimes referred to in the scriptures as "gods" -- for another example see Exodus 22:9 for another example of this where the plural term elohim, usually translated singularly as "God" is in this instance translated as "judges". Thus we see that men who were specifically commissioned to some task by God were sometimes called gods, even in scripture. So, as the Jews are accusing him of being a mere man and yet calling himself God is committing blasphemy, Jesus reminds them that it is indeed scriptural for a person who is commissioned by God to do so. If that is their charge against him, they don't have a case, unless of course, they don't recognize his special commissioning. "Are you the Christ?" they have asked him. "Look at my works," is Jesus' response. But because they haven't responsed to those works, he makes a declarative statement, "I and the Father are one." The subsequent stoning the Jews are going to do is in response to that. Jesus use of the Psalm is in response to the stoning, not an explanation of his statement. "What is wrong with a mere man claiming to be God, if we see this very thing being declared of mere men by God himself in the scriptures?", putting the question back on them, not explaining away his comment is how Jesus uses the Psalm.
My reference to Greek grammar in this passage was specifically to Jesus' statement in verse 36, "I am God's son." This is a quote within a quote, Jesus quoting the Jews who have attributed the statement to Jesus. Jesus does not deny having made that type of statement. He merely challenges them to believe it or not believe it based on what they see of his actions, even if they won't believe his words. Exactly what you have asked for in asking, why didn't he do something to the effect of saying, "I am God, live with it."?
Now the grammar of that simple statement "I am God's son," is equally simple in Greek: υιος του θεου ειμι.
υιος is in the nominative case. Normally a noun in the nominative case would be the subject of the sentence, but in this sentence the subject is contained within the verb itself, so this is a predicate nominative.
There is no article. Now there is no indefinite article in Greek so it can be either "a son" or simply "son".
του θεου is in the genitive case which expresses relationship. Thus "son" belongs to "god", which does have the definite article "the" attached to it. (I'm using small "g" because if Greek doesn't use capitalization as we do in English, and we get that we mean "God" not "god" from the context and applying English grammar rules, not Greek grammar.)
ειμι is the present indicative of the verb "to be" in the first person singular, thus it translates "I am".
So, a very wooden transaltion would be "son of the god I am". Putting that sentence into proper English form it becomes simply, "I am God's Son." In terms of my statement that this particular use of the term in this verse said something grammatically about Jesus being THE son of God vs. being simply any old "a son" of God, I am going to have to retract that statement. I made it thinking of the phrase "Son of God" as a whole, which I do think is used to make a claim for Jesus divinity, but we will have to take that up in another thread. As I said above, there is no article in this sentence. As Greek does not have an indefinite article, when the noun is in the nominative singular, one cannot automatically assume that it should be either with or without the indefinite article. And context here does not help us with that determination.
Now that brings us to that wondeful John 1:1 where you believe that we need to insert the indefinite article. I would love to discuss it, but time is getting away from me, and certainly given that this single verse has been discussed for centuries, we can wait till I return to address it.
I do want to briefly address one other comment you made, though:
It IS VERY TRUE that the Father and the Son are two separate and distinct persons. If we were claiming that they were all one person, then what we would be talking about is schizoprenia. The whole concept of the Trinity was in answer to the question that the early church had to ask itself: How can we worship BOTH God the Father and God the Son, who are clearly two different persons, and still claim that we worship just one God? And that answer was to recognize there is a distinction of 3 separate persons. The Son is NOT the Father and the Father is NOT the Son. Nor is the Holy Spirit the Father nor the Son. They are three separate and distinct personages. We are not making them one in that sense. But we are saying that even though they are three distinct and separate persons that we are not talking about three separate gods. So, proving that the Father and the Son are both God and separate persons is something we would agree with. What we do not agree with is that in proving that statement that you have proved that they are separate gods. We submit to you that even in the reality of having three distinctly separate persons who are each themselves God, that we still have just one being who is God, a being that is himself three persons and yet just one being. As long as you look at each person as a separate being you will not understand the concept of the Trinity. And we Christians will come alongside you to reject as polytheism any belief which proposes that Jesus is a God separate and independent of the Father who is another God. We reject that, for even though we know that Jesus is God and the Father is God and the Spirit is God, yet we also know that God is one and that there is no other God than the one God. That is what we mean when we say Trinity.If you examine the verse, however, it is yet another proof that Jesus is clearly distinct from the "Father", and the two are completely separate gods (if he is referring to Jesus, which is debatable).
"And we are in him who is true—even in his Son Jesus Christ"
His is the pronoun referring to God, another clear proof that the Son is not the same as God (or Father), because "his" is possessive, and the "son" is the possession.