I have always found the Lord's Prayer very interesting. It is one of the few writings that survives in the original Aramaic. Here it is as Jesus would have said it, if He actually did say it.
Source:
http://www.thenazareneway.com/lords_prayer.htm
No doubt that Jesus would have originally taught the prayer to his disciples in Aramaic. My question is how can we know what form it was originally in unless we actually have an original copy of it in Aramaic? Isn't the best we can do is to try to reconstruct what the Aramaic version might have been? It would have to be based on the oldest texts of it that we have, which happen to be in Greek, translate them back into Aramaic (though recognizing that our re-translation probably is not identical to the original form), and then edit it based on any other similar prayers from the same time period that we can find that still exist in Aramaic.
Thus I think what you are able to produce by this method is "a" prayer that might be similar to what Jesus would have prayed with his disciples, but it certainly isn't going to be "the" authentic or genuine prayer that they prayed.
While the version you have provided is interesting, there are some aspects that I seriously question. For instance, for the Aramaic version you have presented to be even close to authentic, that would mean that when writing the prayer, that Matthew had to have intentionally changed the Aramaic
Abwûn (O cosmic Birther, from whom the breath of life comes,) to the Greek πατερ ημων (
pater heemon) or "our father". This seems quite a stretch, even for redactive criticism.
Now, the way a child would address his father in Aramaic was "
abba" and we know that Jesus used this word. The possessive plural of
abba is
'abınu. Is
Abwûn a form of
'abınu? Either way, we still have Jesus teaching his disciples to pray not to a distant "cosmic birther", but to one who is so close and personal that one uses the language of a child. If you want a more connotatively literal translation of this prayer, we are actually taught to pray to God as "our daddy".
I'm also confused that the author of the website would include the last line:
Metol dilachie malkutha wahaila wateschbuchta l'ahlâm almîn which he translates as: "From You comes the all-working will, the lively strength to act, the song that beautifies all and renews itself from age to age."
One of my problems with its inclusion is that, this seems to be a line that corresponds to the doxological ending of the Lord's Prayer, which, just as the author himself pointed out, "The doxology (For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever and ever. Amen) was not present in the original version of the prayer, but rather was added to the Gospels as a result of its use in the liturgy of the early church." So, if it was not present in the original version of the prayer, but was a later adaptation, how could it be present "in the original Aramaic"? A short answer, it couldn't.
This "original" Aramaic rendition of the prayer is not an original copy of the prayer, it is a copy of the prayer re-translated back into the original language. It is nice to hear it in the language that Jesus would have spoken it in, but we do NOT have any new scholarship here in terms of interpreting the prayer.
Lastly. The website you quotes translates late
Amên. as "Sealed in trust, faith and truth. (I confirm with my entire being)".
Amên., "Amin.", "Amen." -- this is one word that is the same in every langauge in the world. It is indeed a confirmation or affirmation of what has been previously said. I understand it to be literally translateable as "so be it". I am sure that there are other acceptable ways to say the same thing. I don't think that "Sealed in trust, faith and truth." would be among them. The translator appears to have taken great liberties with the meaning of this word, and I suspect with many others as well.