What are the rulings for these?!?

As Salaamu Alaikum wa Rahmatu Allah:

Insha Allah read the Nullifiers of Islam and their explanations. This would pertain to mocking the deen or anything the the Messenger of Allah Sallallahu Alaihi wa Salaam came with

Explanation Of The Nullifiers of Islam

Salaam,

First of all everyone is accounted for their own sins. If a muslim woman doesn't wear hijab when she knows that she is supposed to be then she will be eventually puinished, because then she will be considered as following the kuffar and as muslims we are supposed to avoid the kuffar ways.


"O Prophet! Tell thy wives and your daughters, and the women of the believers to draw their cloaks (veils) all over their bodies (i.e. screen themselves completely except the eyes or one eye to see the way)…" (Al-Ahzab 33:59)


"When (the verse): ‘They should draw their veils over their bodies, faces, necks and bosoms,’ was revealed, (the ladies) cut their waist sheets at the edges and covered their faces with the cut pieces." (Sahih Al-Bukhari, Vol. 6, Hadith No. 282).


If a muslim women doesn't follow what is inscribed in the hadith she will therefore be punished on judgement day.




Secondly, if one is insulting the Prophet Muhammed(saw) or Allah(swt) they are considered as disbelievers and they will be heavely punished for their sins. At that moment they will be looked down upon by other muslims and at the same time they will be severky punished by the Al-Mighty.

b)insulting the Prophet(PBUH) or Allah or Islam

Surely (as for) those who speak evil things of Allah and His Apostle, Allah has cursed them in this world and the here after, and He has prepared for them a chastisement bringing disgrace.

format_quote Originally Posted by Abrar

a)for not wearing the hijab
b)insulting the Prophet(PBUH) or Allah or Islam

aren't we supposed to ignore them?:eek:

Are you talking about the punishment in the hereafter? Are you talking about a legal punishment under an Islamic state? Please be more specific.

JazakumAllahu khairan.

It is discretionary (ta'azir) punishment. In other words there is no fixed punishment, but depending on the circumstances and severity of the offense some form of sentence can be given.

Vedad,

there are actually hadiths about a womans boy that said something bad about rasulallah(saw), she killed him and the prophet(saws) said that no bloodmoney should be given, allahu alem, its a very big sin

Please do not quote hadith without citing them specifically! The closest story to what you're saying is that of Asma bint Marwan, which is regarded as a forgery.

The story of the killing of 'Asma' bint Marwan is mentioned by Ibn Sa'd in "Kitab At-Tabaqat Al-Kabir"[1] and by the author of "Kinz-ul-'Ummal" under number 44131 who attributes it to Ibn Sa'd, Ibn 'Adiyy and Ibn 'Asaker. What is interesting is that Ibn 'Adiyy mentions it in his book "Al-Kamel" on the authority of Ja'far Ibn Ahmad Ibn Muhammad Ibn As-Sabah on authority of Muhammad Ibn Ibrahim Ash-Shami on authority of Muhammad Ibn Al-Hajjaj Al-Lakhmi on authority of Mujalid on authority of Ash-Shu'abi on authority of Ibn 'Abbas, and added that

...this isnad (chain of reporters) is not narrated on authority of Mujalid but by Muhammad Ibn Al-Hajjaj and they all (other reporters in the chain) accuse Muhammad Ibn Al-Hajjaj of forging it.[2]

It is also reported by Ibn al-Gawzi in "Al-'Ilal"[3] and is listed among other flawed reports.
So according to its isnad, the report is forged - because one of its reporters is accused of fabricating hadith. Hence, such a story is better put in trash can.

(1) Ibn Sa'd, Kitab At-Tabaqat Al-Kabir, Volume 1, pages 27-28.
(2) Ibn 'Adiyy, Al-Kamel, Volume 6, page 145.
(3) Ibn al-Gawzi, Al-'Ilal, Volume 1, page 279.

format_quote Originally Posted by Abrar

If there were no arabic bible then how come there were arab christians?

There is no dependence between the two. There were arab christians who followed what their priests taught them. Here is the proof if you don't believe me:
From The Encyclopedia of Religion and Ethics

There is no evidence of any parts of the Bible having been translated before Islam. (Hasting, James. The Encyclopedia of Religion and Ethics, vol X, p. 540)

Hasting's Dictionary of the Bible attributes the first arabic translation to the tenth century (p.105) and Encyclopedia Judaica attributes the first arabic translation of the old testament either to Hunayn ibn Ishaq (d. 873 CE) or Saadiah b. Joseph Gaon (d. 942 CE) (Vol. 4, p. 863).

so what does this mean?Are jews forbidden to enter modern day Saudi Arabia for this?

The Arabian Peninsula is the home of Muslims who reserve the right to keep it exclusively for Muslims.

Why would they get beaten-up?! They would simply be advised to wear the hijab.