So, you are saying that they are extra verses. Does that in and of itself make them a corruption?
i'll quote what the Christian website says and you and your allies can continue whatever it is you are doing...
((The most reliable early manuscripts and other ancient witnesses do not have Mark 16:9-20.))
this pretty much seems to imply that the mere inclusion of, and i repeat, Mark 16:9-20 renders those codices unreliable! and that "other ancient witnesses agree with that statement.
but lets, leave that as the Christians here seem incapable of addressing the matter in an honest manner.
let's return to the issue of what day Jesus [allegedly] died on. if there is not 1 single Christian [or Joey] that can determine whether or not Jesus had the passover meal with his disciples before he died or can even tell on what day he died, using the 4 Gospels [or Joey's 2], can we safely assume that:
1) Jesus NEVER ate the last passover meal with his disciples and that there is NO BASIS in the 4 Gospels [or Joey's 2] for what is now [and earlier] referred to as "the Lord's Supper?"
IF you disagree, please give your evidence.
and
2) Jesus NEVER died. if you believe that he did die, then please back up your answer by telling us on what day he died. if you CANNOT tell us or are incapable of telling us or are unwilling to tell us on what day he died, then we must conclude that he didn't.
IF you cannot respond to those questions, can we assume that any mention of those issues in the 4 gospels [or Joey's 2] is just corrupted text?
La Hawla wa La Quwata Illa Billah!
Subhanallah, getting a straight answer around here seems impossible!
