Is it possible to Prove the Qu'ran is the very Words of God?

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The bible isn't ten times bigger, it isn't even more than a thousand verse bigger of which the majority of it is the writing of a charlatan who isn't recognized as an apostle by the one who chose the apostles-- I have already quoted before the precise number of suras from the Quran vs. the bible, and for the umpteenth time, asking you to not compare the Quran to the bible. Again, if any object of comparison would be the hadith to the bible, and at least the hadith has a long chain of isnad to verify its verity that seems to be completely lacking in the bible.

You can't take the OT as a part of your scriptures given that firstly, the Jews don't recognize your bible or your god and secondly, since none of the old laws apply to you whatsoever!

The facts appear to be that the NT uses about 8,000 different words and about 180,000 words in total. The OT uses about 11,000 different words and about 610,000 in total. The Qu,ran uses about 3,000 different words and about 80,000 in total.

It is not for YOU to decide what Christians regard as the complete Bible and presumably you have never heard of the 10 commandments for example, they apply to me to everyone and you muddle up ritual with moral laws and forget that situations, circumstances and institutions that existed 4,000 years ago have no meaning now. For example, there was a temple and quite a few laws apply to it but the temple has not existed for 2,000 years so even if one wanted to you cannot fulfil those laws. So many things are now interpreted figuratively - 4,000 years ago one scarified animals but now we speak for example of sacrificial lives or sacrificing our money or time in God's service.




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The facts appear to be that the NT uses about 8,000 different words and about 180,000 words in total. The OT uses about 11,000 different words and about 610,000 in total. The Qu,ran uses about 3,000 different words and about 80,000 in total.

It is not for YOU to decide what Christians regard as the complete Bible and presumably you have never heard of the 10 commandments for example, they apply to me to everyone and you muddle up ritual with moral laws and forget that situations, circumstances and institutions that existed 4,000 years ago have no meaning now. For example, there was a temple and quite a few laws apply to it but the temple has not existed for 2,000 years so even if one wanted to you cannot fulfil those laws. So many things are now interpreted figuratively - 4,000 years ago one scarified animals but now we speak for example of sacrificial lives or sacrificing our money or time in God's service.




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[SIZE=+1] The bible has 260 chapters, and [/SIZE][SIZE=+1]7958 verses

http://www.deafmissions.com/tally/bkchptrvrs.html

I am not going to get into the Quran or hadith of which you are completely ignorant.

but I see no reason to pad a book with laws and rules that aren't applicable to you, and if another religion simply doesn't recognize you-- in fact they view your God as a son of a w hore, as I have quoted directly from their holy book in the comparative section.

Why do you care to mention verses that:
1- are either obsolete
2- come from folks who don't recognize you as other than misguided gentiles
3- not practiced by you
4- are frankly abolished by a charlatan and not your actual god?

what is the point do you care to clarify? the ten commandments are a universal code practiced by most societies and takes up space in one tablet.

Again, don't be a hypocrite, fluffing up your curriculum vitae with meaningless babble that you are not able to defend in the real world that counts against you than viewed as a merit!

all the best
[/SIZE]
 
Salaam/Peace

... Bible (well it is at least 10 times bigger)


Quran has more than 6 thousands verses . Do u know any Christian who has more than 6 thousand Biblical verses in memory - either in its original language or in mother tongue ?
 
I don't find it odd at all, I think I find a prophet sent to speak to his people against the sins of the flesh by getting drunk and sleeping with his daughters far more odd, or 'king David' taking a concubine on his death bed to be odd.
Lot had sex with his two daughters. One might even conclude that he had God's help in this, as he was both very old and very drunk at the time. There was no punishment for any of them. On the contrary, both daughters were rewarded with sons who founded nations (Gen 19:33-38). Earlier (Gen 19:8), Lot had offered his daughters to be used by a mob. And Peter said that Lot was a "righteous man" (2Peter 2:8).

When David was old and infirm, he was brought a young maiden so that he would "get heat" (I Kings 1:1-2). It didn't work.

It is good to know that you agree with the Bible record that these prophets committed sin. What perhaps you forget is that no one rational interpreter of the Bible would take one of these incidents and turn it into a law as you do in Islam. The fact that Lot had sex with his daughters is not an example to follow is it?

so to answer your Q, I see nothing wrong with marriage if parties agree and you are able to both be just and fair, but I do find something wrong with all that obscenity and scatology in the bible, and find it even more odd that you have the nerve to come here and discuss a marriage or how slaves are treated when I have clearly quoted from the Quran and the hadith, as to their treatment, and I guarantee modern day you'd not find a more just treatment!

Funny that, would you stand up in the United Nations General Assembly and say that taking slaves is not just allowed it is a good thing and if a man then has sexual relations with them that also is a good thing and indeed you could NOT find a more just treatment? A simple YES or NO will do here.

Quite frankly your opinion is worth nil, you see seem to stand idle and even defend far worse from that which you subscribe to. Islam came to abolish slavery slowly as society was economically entrenched in it.. what do you have to say about treatment of other races modern day by your allegedly superior morals?
This is just rubbish. Islam has stood still for centuries since nothing in its laws is temporal. As to slavery YOU have to explain why Islamic countries were the last to abolish slavery (Saudi Arabia did not do it until the 1960s) and then only because western powers forced them into it. But what bothers me here is that you are totally inconsistent, you insisted that having sex with a slave girl is permissible (the Qu'ran says so and see yoiu own quote below) in one place and then seek the moral high ground with this nonsense about Islam coming to get rid of slavery in another.

This verse shows that Muslim men should abstain from illicit relations and seek enjoyment through marriage to free women or through their female slaves
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Let us no get back to the purpose of this thread
 
Quran has more than 6 thousands verses . Do u know any Christian who has more than 6 thousand Biblical verses in memory - either in its original language or in mother tongue ?

Yes I do. But can you get to the point, what are you trying to prove or argue here?

For example, I think I know the Bible inside out but I have not memorised all of it. So is it better to know it, know what it means and have it in your own language or memorise it but not understand it?
 
Salaam/Peace

Yes I do.

Who is s/he ? Will s/he agree to give a test in front of other people ?

If a Muslim wants to claim that s/he is a Qurane Hafizz ( who have Quran in memory ) , then s/he must have to give a test in front of other Qurane Hafizz and Islamic scholars. The person u are talking about , who took his/her test , where and when ?



what are you trying to prove or argue here?

it's the miracle of Quran that one can have it in memory with or without understanding .
 
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I think we have been distracted lately so I re-post the following to try to get us back to the subject of this thread. I don't mind discussing other things but suggest another thread is needed for some of them. This is my first post in comment on Billal-A thesis and here I comment on his first post in the series number 326 and to make the posts manageable I have not quoted it in full
This is from my dissertation which was assessed academically by an educational institute in the UK. What are the challenges of the Qur’ān? Unlike any other religious scriptures, the Qur’an boldly asserts itself as a thorough and accurate Book to which is assigned the greatest and most profound miracle of proof:

Even further, the Qur’ān mentions conditions and methods in disproving it! The themes around which these challenges are based are varied and when observed as a whole, deem it impossible to be maintained. In other words, any book which cannot be disproved via these methods must be accepted as a miracle and divine.

Challenge 1: The Linguistic Challenge, Challenge 2: The Accuracy Challenge, Challenge 3: The Preservation Challenge

To begin with I will say that I assume that Billal-A is perfectly sincere in what he has done so any criticism I levy here is about his work not his character. Just to be clear, thesis is normally understood as implying that the work is based on some hypothesis or premise, which is put forward without proof. The ensuring report then sets out to prove the premise and where this is not possible, to offer some discussion and evidence for its validity.

1. So we have to ask what is it that Billal-A is seeking to do in these few posts. Unfortunately he does not make that clear but one supposes that it is to, using his words, 'prove' the Qu'ran has a miraculous nature though exactly what that might mean is never quite made clear.

2. He does not outline his methodology or even make an attempt at a research question though I accept that what we have here is perhaps only a portion of what was written.

3. As far as I can find Billal never mentions the English translation he is using for the Qu'ran and rarely sets or describes any context to Qu'ranic citations and it seems to me often shortens a quotation - why I cannot say. I have searched 7 English translations and cannot find an exact match for these early quotations so I gave up at that point. Nevertheless if one is to set out on such a task readers should know on what basis the search is carried out.

4. However, he begins by stating the 3 challenges listed above that the Qu'ran makes though it does not seem to occur to Billal that such self-referential writing can easily lead to a paradox because of necessity it is circular, as according to Billal, the Qu'ran assigns itself as a miracle. Indeed if you look through Boillal's post he almost never cites or considers alternatives as I shall show in later posts and more often than not he simply states the orthodox Islamic position

I have copied this section from another source but modified it to suit this situation. So suppose I take the first challenge, that of linguistic perfection and make an analogous one I might write: "My wife is the most beautiful women in the world, bring me any woman like her and if you can't, then you have to accept everything she says because she must be divine.

Do you think this is a sound argument or is there some kind of disjunction between the two premises? Nevertheless it is very much like the claim of the Qur'an saying "Bring one sura or just one verse like it, if you can!" And if you cannot, then you have to believe the Qur'an is from God (and obviously then you have to obey it). What is wrong with such a challenge or criterion?

5. Firstly, one cannot draw conclusions about a woman's virtue or her knowledge from the property of beauty, in a similar way there is no logical connection (meaning that the conclusion is inescapable) between eloquence and divine origin (even if we admit there is such a thing as the divine).

6. Secondly, beauty in a women is as much subject to taste as is beauty in literature, who is to say my taste of what I find beautiful is more right than what you find beautiful or eloquent - some people find the Qur'an to be eloquent and some don't.

7. If a man is really in love with his wife, he will be totally convinced (know) that she is the most beautiful woman on the earth even if nobody else sees this and no one will be able to convince him otherwise, thus, it is a question of his relationship to her, and not his ability to judge objectively.

For a husband to praise and prefer his wife above all other women is right and proper and can only have good outcomes. But the decision for the Qur'an or any other supposed revelation should not be based on such subjectivity to decide whether you go to heaven or hell, depending whether you are right or wrong. A husband might praise his wife for her surpassing beauty even if she is not the most beautiful woman either for his (blind?) love to her, or because he fears her and does not dare to speak ill of her in her presence. In the same way the Muslim might be in love with the Qur'an/Islam and not be able to see objectively for such a positive reason, or he is afraid that daring to look and compare will be dangerous and hence refuse to do so.

In any case, it is absolutely impossible to disprove the challenge "Bring any woman more beautiful than her". He has made himself the last judge. Nobody can overrule him. And in the end, he still has the way out, that he was only speaking of "inner beauty" which cannot be appreciated by the man who does not really know her [is not married to her], just as the Qur'an is taken out of reach of the sceptic by claiming that only the believer, the person coming with the right attitude, will be able to appreciate the beauty and eloquence and depth etc. of the Qur'an. This challenge is utter subjectivity and useless as a criterion for seeking objective truth. I will respond to each challenge in later posts.
 
It is good to know that you agree with the Bible record that these prophets committed sin. What perhaps you forget is that no one rational interpreter of the Bible would take one of these incidents and turn it into a law as you do in Islam. The fact that Lot had sex with his daughters is not an example to follow is it?
I don't agree.. there is a difference between making mistakes (which all humans make) and committing a cardinal sin, the very type that wiped your people.. Don't project your own thoughts unto me!
You have no bible scholars or creed all together, I don't see religion being anything to you than a relic that you visit when desiring of false patriotism or an emotional outburst. You have a long way to go merely getting past the three headed god to have a thought at all on jurisprudence, tawheed or fiqh etc. Jesus didn't hang around long enough to render unto himself so he rendered unto Caesar!


Funny that, would you stand up in the United Nations General Assembly and say that taking slaves is not just allowed it is a good thing and if a man then has sexual relations with them that also is a good thing and indeed you could NOT find a more just treatment? A simple YES or NO will do here.
This isn't the first grade, and the U.N assembly has no jurisprudence over any sovereign nation or even colonial ones given how many laws the U.S and Israel are in breech of overtly-- so spare me the sanctimony!


This is just rubbish. Islam has stood still for centuries since nothing in its laws is temporal. As to slavery YOU have to explain why Islamic countries were the last to abolish slavery (Saudi Arabia did not do it until the 1960s) and then only because western powers forced them into it. But what bothers me here is that you are totally inconsistent, you insisted that having sex with a slave girl is permissible (the Qu'ran says so and see yoiu own quote below) in one place and then seek the moral high ground with this nonsense about Islam coming to get rid of slavery in another.
The rubbish is what YOU spew.. are you talking about the same western nations that have done this not fifty years ago?

rosa-parks-dickson1dec05.jpg


or this:

SEGREGATEJimCrowLaws-1.jpg


or this:

abughraibleash-1.jpg



again, pls spare me your smarmy BS.. I don't even need to go back forty years ago to echo how so many different forms of slavery still exist, with no semblance of compassion in the jesus lovers!

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Let us no get back to the purpose of this thread

There was a purpose? I don't see how it can be achieved when you are so under-educated on the topic? reading a paragraph and arguing for 25 pages doesn't loan this thread a purpose nor you any credence!

all the best
 
I want to be clear here that what I am saying is about how some people respond to the Qu'ranic challenges as in my view what I have to say has little or nothing to do with the message itself and for me that is a separate issue .

I will have to post me responses in a number of posts to make them manageable in size and give a chance for comment. In this case it is the first of two posts and in them I would like to deal with what Billa-A' calls the first challenge - the Linguistic Challenge. To use Billa;=A's words - the linguistic challenge of the Qur’ān is thus given to those who doubt the origins of the Book itself. It is to produce something similar to it, thus highlighting the poetic and semantic miraculous nature of the Book:

“And if you are in doubt about what We have sent down [the Qur’ān] upon Our Servant [Muhammad], then produce a surah the like thereof and call upon your witnesses other than Allāh, if you should be truthful.”*[Surah āl-Imrān: Q2: 23-24]

Yusuf Ali - And if ye are in doubt as to what We have revealed from time to time to Our servant, then produce a Sura like thereunto; and call your witnesses or helpers (If there are any) besides Allah, if your (doubts) are true But if ye cannot- and of a surety ye cannot- then fear the Fire whose fuel is men and stones,- which is prepared for those who reject Faith.​

Here we have a book talking about itself that issues a challenge and at the same time affirms that it cannot be met and does this with a threat. So Billal-A and others set about constructing so called proofs and in this first case its about linguistic purity. Let me outline some difficulties and objections:

1. Suppose I suggest that the works of Thomas Hardy have the necessary ingredients to meet the challenge then of course I can, at least in principle call witnesses, set up a committee, do a survey but I cannot see how I or anyone can call Allah into the witness box.

2. So we have an immediate difficulty and that is who is to be the judge when something is brought that purports to be as good as or better than the Qu'ran? The Qu'ran asks any one to bring something but does not tell us so who can decide?

3. We therefore have to think up our own way of doing it which is hardly a way to get even consensus. How can we set up a measure regarding linguistic qualities that would be anything more that subjective. As far as I know the Qu'ran itself does not offer a standard or perhaps in a circular way it seem to be its own judge of itself.

4. One post in this thread Skye suggested: Textual integrity (1), logical consistency (2), Miraculous features*(3), numerical marvels (4), application to every day life and relations (5), application to spiritual life (6), application to political/economic etc. (7), Rituals and observances that aren't only of benefit to the here after but absolutely integral for our physical/mental/emotional well being. (8), transcendence (9), beauty (10), the Divine promise (11). I suggested level of agreement with the Bible but this was ruled out as inadmissible by Skye but no reason was given.

5. You see the difficulty, if you are a Muslim you will choose criteria that favours your view and if not a Muslim you will choose different ones. Skye never offered any scale along which a measure might be taken or defined any of these ideas. For example, take 'divine promise' - how will you asses that, what 'ruler' will you use and of course in a strictly logical sense it is inadmissible anyway because it is based on the notion of God and that must be opinion not fact?

The issue here is that it is very very easy to construct a list of criteria and then convince yourself (no one is excluded here) that they are in some way absolute, unquestioned. So far no one in this thread (or anywhere else I have looked) has gone beyond stating a feature and as we saw above Skye was unable to define the meaning or suggest a scale.

6. Suppose we take logical consistency as that sounds as if it might be detectable and our measure is simply to take a nominal and count for and against. That is we look through the Qu'ran and ask say does this verses logically follow from the previous one, or does this verse agree with another one somewhere else. So is this a logical process or not but even if it is when we come to each case we have to make a judgement and when you do that you are largely outside logic and into emotions and of that there is no doubt.

Could this be done? The answer is that no Muslim will accept that there is a logical gap even if confronted with the facts, there would always be a way out, an alternative explanation - a Muslim or perhaps better, most Muslims would not be able emotionally to admit a logical difficulty. If I identify (and I have my own bias) one a Muslim will say I am wrong and invariably say I am ignorant of Islamic teaching or I am insincere or I hate Islam and so on. So there is no way to arrive at a decision objectively because it will be an almost totally emotional response. Let me give an example

Dawood 28:48-49*And now that they have received the truth from Us, they ask: "why is he not given the like of what was given to Moses?" But do they not deny what was formerly given to Moses? They say: "Two works*of sorcery complementing one another!" And they declare: "We will believe in neither of them" Say bring down from God*a scripture that is a better guide than these*and I will follow it, if what you say be true .

I would say these two verses are logically connected. They begin with the 'received truth', it then talks about 'two works' and then 'scripture is a better guide than these ..' All translators (that I have examined) say these two works are the Qu'ran (given to Mohammed) and the Torah (given to Moses). However, Muslim exegetes say the things given to Moses were something else - plagues, his staff but why TWO and that seems to jar with the 'received truth'? Let us suppose that the thing that Moses received was not the Torah then what can it mean in v49 when it talks about scripture and 'these'? So I would argue that a simple reading yields no logical inconsistency but the typical Muslim one does.
 


4. One post in this thread Skye suggested: Textual integrity (1), logical consistency (2), Miraculous features*(3), numerical marvels (4), application to every day life and relations (5), application to spiritual life (6), application to political/economic etc. (7), Rituals and observances that aren't only of benefit to the here after but absolutely integral for our physical/mental/emotional well being. (8), transcendence (9), beauty (10), the Divine promise (11). I suggested level of agreement with the Bible but this was ruled out as inadmissible by Skye but no reason was given.

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I have given you reasons all throughout. Textual integrity alone is enough to cast the bible as none other but a work of fiction of idle scribes, as you yourself don't claim that it is a word of God and how can it?



Dawood 28:48-49*And now that they have received the truth from Us, they ask: "why is he not given the like of what was given to Moses?" But do they not deny what was formerly given to Moses? They say: "Two works*of sorcery complementing one another!" And they declare: "We will believe in neither of them" Say bring down from God*a scripture that is a better guide than these*and I will follow it, if what you say be true .
Why do you keep arguing with me a native Arabic speaker to repress all I know of Arabic to resign to your desired rendition?

Show me the word 'two works' in the verse above or 'Torah or the Quran' at all. Show me that in Arabic the way I have labored to translate word for word above and show me that the torah is what is intended in the exegesis of scholars and the tafsirs of jallayen and ibn kathir.

I have tired of how when you lose an argument you make a bulky post of nonsense that you have positively no desire to let go of in spite of overwhelming evidence and in defiance of experts in scholarship and language!



all the best
 
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Greetings Eliphaz,

Apologies for the long delay in replying to your post.

I wanted to focus on these four because I felt that these were the four strongest claims without which, as Hugo has said, you could be speaking of any book. But as you want to return to the list in its entirety, I have gone over each point again with respect to what we have covered since:
As I said, I don’t mind focusing on particular aspects. However, this does not mean the others are to be disregarded because they too are unique for the Qur’an and most certainly cannot be claimed for “any book”.

1. The language and style of the Qur'an
This is largely subjective and limited to one’s understanding of the Arabic language. This is like playing music which only some people can hear and asking them all to bear witness that the music is beautiful. Or maybe our ears are already ‘sealed’ from birth as the Qur’an sometimes says of the heart?
Indeed the extent to which we can discuss this aspect is limited by our understanding of the Arabic language, which is what I said right at the beginning. Does that mean it is subjective? No, of course not. Your earlier answer was much more befitting a seeker of truth when you said, “I am resuming my Arabic studies next year so here’s hoping that I too may one day be able to recognise the beauty of the Qur’an”. I’m disappointed that now you’ve made up your mind without even doing the research.

As for the analogy – it is incorrect. Deaf people cannot hear any music regardless of how hard they try. Yet in the case of the Qur’an, the more a person exerts effort towards it - such as educating themselves in the Arabic language and all its sciences - the more they can appreciate the miracle of the Qur’an. This applies to both Arabs as well as non-Arabs.

2. The incapability to produce anything similar to it by the disbelievers during the Prophet's (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) time and those after them
As I have said and stand by, Muawiyah is a straw man and you have all but admitted this. Anyone who tried to reproduce anything like the Qur’an in terms of its claim to be from God would be either mad, a liar or an actual Prophet (which is a misnomer and I only add it to make this point).
I don’t know how the second statement relates to the first, but you have failed to show how Musaylimah (not Muawiyah!) is a strawman argument. Nevertheless, if you don’t want to accept him as a valid example simply because of how ridiculous he made himself look, let’s not waste any more time over it. Throughout the centuries, thinkers, poets, theologians and literary critics have attempted to take on the challenge of the Qur’an, yet both Muslim and non-Muslim scholars have agreed on their failure. So there are many others in addition to Musaylimah – there was Ibn Al-Mukaffa, ‘Abu'l-'Ala Al-Marri, Yahya b. Al-Hakam al-Ghazal, Sayyid 'Ali Muhammad, Ibn al-Rawandi, Bassar bin Burd, Sahib Ibn 'Abbad, Abu'l - 'Atahiya and others. I hope you’re not going to come back and claim they were all strawmen too?

I would like to borrow something I read because it makes a whole lot of sense here. Consider this argument:

‘Try to produce one chapter like that of Sun Tzu’s “Art of War”. You surely can’t, can you? So you must admit that Sun Tzu is God! AllahuSunTzu!’

Is this not a silly statement? Do you still not see how silly this claim is?
The reason why you think it is “silly” is because you don’t understand the nature of the challenge and how the Qur’an is incomparable to any other work. The Qur'an, being neither prose nor poetry, is a literary genre of its own that is of the highest eloquence and of matchless stylistic perfection. For example, even though the challengers have had the same set of ‘tools’, which are the 28 letters, finite grammatical rules and the blue print of the challenge – which is the Qur’an itself; they have failed to:

  • Replicate the Qur’ans literary form
  • Match the unique linguistic genre of the Qur’an
  • Select and arrange words like that of the Qur’an
  • Select and arrange particles like that of the Qur’an
  • Match the Qur’ans phonetic superiority
  • Equal the frequency of rhetorical devices
  • Match the level of informativity
  • Equal the Qur’ans conciseness and flexibility
For further information, I would suggest you read some of the articles written on this topic which I've linked to earlier.

H A R Gibb. states:
“As a literary monument the Koran thus stands by itself, a production unique to the Arabic literature, havingneither forerunners nor successors in its own idiom. Muslims of all ages are united in proclaiming theinimitability not only of its contents but also of its style….. and in forcing the High Arabic idiom into the expression of new ranges of thought the Koran develops a bold and strikingly effective rhetorical prose in whichall the resources of syntactical modulation are exploited with great freedom and originality.”

Moreover, you’ve again committed the fallacy of homing in on one aspect of the Qur’an’s miraculous nature, thinking it alone proves the Qur’an is from Allaah (swt). As I said more than once, all the aspects are to be taken in totality.

If this claim alone, the self-declared ‘miracle’ of the Qur’an, can be refuted, then the other proofs are irrelevant.
You keep calling it a “self-declared miracle”, but I can’t understand how you came to that conclusion.

3. The stories and accounts of the nations and prophets of old, since the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) had no recourse to such information.
*According to your knowledge of events. As I have discussed there were many opportunities for the Prophet to have recourse to this information, but you have said that the probability of this is irrelevant because he was ‘was raised among his people and every aspect of his life was exposed to them’ and that ‘how could they believe in his truthfulness if they had any doubt that he was claiming credit for ideas taught to him by some other teachers without bothering to give them credit ?’ But the point is that not everyone did believe him, in fact most people didn’t.
All that you have presented on this topic is mere conjecture that is unfeasible and contradictory. I presented many points showing this, yet you only quote one of the six questions posed by Jamal Badawi and seem to have forgotten not only the other five, but everything posted in addition. The fact that some people didn’t accept Islam has nothing to do with this, because it is well known that not everyone who comes to know of the truth accepts it.

Besides which how many of the Jews actually converted in Medina before the rest were massacred?
How exactly does this misinformation support anything you’ve said?

I also do not understand why you have accepting that the Prophet could not have edited the information without being able to read or write. If I went into the desert and heard various fantastical stories from Christian traders (who perhaps wanted me to convert to their religion), and pondered over them during the long desert nights, without writing a single word down I am sure anyone could come up with different permutation without much difficulty.
It’s one thing to conjecture about something, and another to back it up with evidence. As I said, I have already mentioned a number of points in this regard that you haven’t responded to. I also came across this excerpt of Dr Laurence Brown which echoes some of those points:

Something Wrong With This Picture


The great importance the Qur’an assigns to reason in the pursuit of faith is surprising, especially considering the era and place in which it first appeared. By all accounts the Arabian Peninsula was at that time far from being a cradle of learning or philosophy. The Arabs were a callous, poor, illiterate, and uncultured people, often struggling fiercely against their harsh environment and each other for what little there was to extend their survival. While the Scriptures of the other major world religions appeared in developed and refined societies, the Qur’an first appeared in what can be aptly described as a cultural desert. Historians agree that the Arabs were a primitive people with no artistic, literary, or scientific heritage to speak of. They had no schools of philosophy, no significant works of visual art or literature; they were unknowledgeable in higher mathematics and possessed no other Scriptures or sacred writings. Their only developed art form was poetry, orally communicated and handed down. Such an environment is not expected to produce a work of such genius and literary power. We might assume that a long and gradual, cultural maturation would have preceded the Qur’an’s appearance.

There is no evidence that Muhammad had any formal education. He may have led a few caravan expeditions in his twenties, but that would not provide him with the opportunity to develop his intellectual skills to such a high level. The whole style of the Qur’an, its stress on reason, its logical coherence … its beauty and conciseness, suggests an author whose insight and wisdom come from far beyond the primitive confines of the then backward and isolated Arabian Peninsula.

I thought that perhaps there may have been more than one author of the Qur’an, but, unlike other Scriptures, there is no internal evidence to support this. The personality behind the Revelations is clearly one and its coherence is too great for it to have been a collective effort. As the Scripture states:

Surely if it were from other than God, they would find in it many a contradiction (4:82).

They could not produce the like thereof, even if they backed up each other with help and support (17:88).

The only reasonable explanation I could come up with is that Muhammad had to be humanity’s greatest genius, for history has known many unusually gifted minds but none that transcended their time and place as he must have. Einstein was an amazing physicist, but his development of the Theory of Relativity was preceded by centuries of discovery with the science of physics moving in that direction for some time. Had Einstein not come up with the Theory of Relativity when he did, one of his peers almost certainly would have soon after. Andrew Wiles’ recent proof of Fermat’s Last Theorem is a brilliant achievement, but hundreds of years of advancement in mathematics and work on this problem contributed to it. Mozart, Van Gough, and Shakespeare were exceptional, but their works built on and reflect trends within their cultural surroundings. But the Qur’an’s sudden appearance in the Hijaz seemed to me like a rose bush suddenly appearing in full bloom in the most barren sector of the Empty Quarter of Arabia.

I felt that if Muhammad was the author of the Qur’an, then, besides being the most brilliant mind in history, he also must have been intensely devout and altruistic. The Qur’an is the purest testament to monotheism in existence, and it shows a deep, compassionate commitment to helping humanity, guiding men and women to the love of God, and righteous living. It would also seem that the Prophet must have been remarkably humble and self-effacing, as the Scripture repeatedly insists that Muhammad is only a man; that his only role is to deliver the message; that he has no supernatural powers; and that he, like everyone else, should pray for guidance and forgiveness. It criticizes and corrects him on several occasions. Such humility is rare in persons so intellectually superior to their peers.

Therefore, if Muhammad had authored the Qur’an, it would seem that he was singularly devoted to serving God and humanity and to teaching virtue, but yet, I could not ignore that he must also have concocted the most audacious hoax, fabricating a Scripture that portrays itself as God’s direct communication through him. It does not fit that a person capable of such a colossal lie could also produce such a powerful call to truth and goodness. I toyed with the idea that the Prophet may have had multiple personalities, but the Qur’an is surely not the delusions of a fragmented personality, any more than it could be the work of several individuals.

Can you then explain what the lesson of the story of ‘Ad and the Thamud is? Is there any purpose to the stories of ‘Ad and Thamud than to spread fear and to create obedient slaves who worship out of fear? Why does Allah need to show off his strength so often in the Qur’an, why is it not enough for Him to let us see grandiosity of the Creation and be satisfied that, yes, God can do great things? To me these stories suggest Allah has a chip on his shoulder and has to constantly use these interchangeable examples of brute force to maintain self-respect.
I’m glad you asked. One of the most important benefits from the stories in the Qur’an is that they demonstrate the manner in which one should call people to Allaah (swt) and what are the matters to be emphasised first – the primary message of all the prophets was Tawheed. In addition, these stories show that the true religion of mankind has always been one and the same (the religion of Tawheed) - there has been no evolution from polytheism to monotheism. Furthermore, through these stories, the believer realises that he is part of one great community that has existed throughout the centuries, whose sole purpose is the worship and pleasure of Allaah (swt). The Muslim is not alone in striving to follow the Straight Path, rather there have been many that have gone along that path in the past.

Another benefit from these stories is that they provide reassurance to the Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) and all those following in his footsteps. Many of these stories show how the earlier prophets were treated by their people, showing how they had to face ridicule, scorn and denial etc. Thus, whoever faces such difficulties should realise that earlier prophets faced the same and that this is a trial from Allaah (swt) that all people following the same path may have to face. Moreover, their stories make it clear that Allaah (swt) gave them strength and supported them due to their patience.

These stories also demonstrate how greatly Allaah (swt) blesses His true and devoted servants. The reader can quickly recognise how much Allaah (swt) blessed, guided and aided the pious people and this will remind the reader that if he is working for the sake of Allaah (swt), Allaah (swt) will indeed help him, bless him and never allow his works to be lost in vain.

Through reading these stories of the earlier prophets, one also realises how Allaah (swt) is able to manifest His power over His creation. Nothing occurs except by His will. Furthermore, no matter how strong the forces of evil might seem, there will come a time when they will be brought down and removed.

These are some examples of the morals and teachings presented by the stories in the Qur’an. The impertinent comments you made towards Allaah (swt) demonstrate your need for a proper approach to the Qur’an. If you do not have a sincere heart in learning about Islam and the Qur’an, then discussions such as these are a complete waste of time.

You mean calling the leader ‘King’ not ‘Phaoroh’ in the story of Joseph and the Phaoroh calling a man ‘Haman’ in the story of Moses?
I mean all the points I mentioned regarding the borrowing theory. Let’s deal with what we have before adding in extra points for discussion.

4. The predictions which occurred in the Qur'an, and which later came true

Firstly, by ‘decade’ I was referring to the fact that the prediction in that Surah was made in around 615 AD, so when we say ‘3 to 10 years’ it could have either come true in the 610s or the 620s, therefore in either of the two decades.
Whichever decade it falls into is irrelevant – the main point is that it was given to occur within the next 3 to 9 years.

Secondly you forget the Roman (Byzantine) Empire was now based in Constantinople, and the leadership transferred there in 324 AD – therefore to talk about the setbacks of the Western Roman Empire is not really that relevant by this point and is more of a distraction. The weakened Empire it was still formidable,
Wherever the capital was, the east and the west were simply two regions of the same empire. As for it being “formidable”, see below.

and let us not forget the Roman-Persian War of 572-591 (shortly after the Prophet’s birth) during which the Romans defeated the Persians and were left in a strategically stronger position towards the Persians than before. If you were going to place bets after that war which side would you pick?
Even if the Romans defeated the Persians at this time, it doesn’t necessarily mean they were now in a “strategically stronger position” as the Romans and Persians had been fighting for centuries, with either side gaining victories or with long intermittent periods of peace between them. The situation was drastically different decades later when the Roman empire was at the brink of destruction. (According to Wikipedia, since 614, the emperor issued large quantities of silver coins with a new and desperate slogan on them: Deus adiuta Romanis - "God, help the Romans!")

The renowned historian Edward Gibbon has commented:

“When this prophecy was made, no prediction could be more unbelievable because the initial twelve years of Heraclius were evidently declaring an end to the Roman Empire.” [Fall of the Roman Empire, v.5, p.73-74]

Since when did anything an American President (or other world leader for that matter) has promised mean squat? I’d say my prediction is actually a fairly good example considering I do not have as much data to hand to show how often an American President, let alone Barack Obama keeps his promises (which has to be quite low), compared to the Prophet, who had evidence of the Romans already having defeated the Persians in his lifetime.
This is getting quite silly. Whether you believe the President or not is irrelevant, the fact is that from all the information available to you, you make a prediction on what seems most likely, which anyone can do. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) didn’t have access to the internet and news channels, neither did he have any “evidence” of the likely outcome. To the contrary, the prediction was made against all odds such that even the pagan Arabs confidently betted against it. I reiterate the underlying point again: no prediction made in the Qur’an has failed, but rather each (of the ones mentioned) came true consistently despite circumstances which made some, if not all of them, very unlikely.

Neither. The Battle of Badr was won in 624 whereas the Persians were defeated in 628 AD.
You forget that Heraclius launched his campaign throughout 622-627 CE. In 627/628 was the climactic Battle of Nineveh, yet the Romans had begun gaining victory well before this. Thus, what may be referred to is an earlier victory, which according to Dr. Laurence Brown, was the defeat of a major Persian force led by the famous general Shahr-Baraz.

5. The perfect belief of Monotheism - The attribution of all that befits Allaah and the negation of all that does not befit Him, and the call of the Creator to the created to worship Him. All of this is not possible for a human to bring forth unless he was inspired by Allaah.

This is a misassumption and circular logic. What ‘befits’ Allah is a matter of human interpretation and in the case of your argument is based solely on what the Qur’an says Allah is. I could say that God is ‘Most Practical’ (a made up attribute) and it could be argued that I am right because this attribute befits God, because what is God if not a practical being?
We’re not talking about one or two attributes here, we’re talking about the Islamic belief as a whole. There is no other religion whose concept of monotheism is as pure and perfect as Islam. Allaah (swt) is described with qualities of complete perfection, and at the same time in a manner that is free of ascribing to Him any imperfection. This is in line with man’s natural disposition and ability to reason that God is perfect in every way and free from having any partners etc – there is no circular logic involved, as the beliefs in the Islamic creed distinctly stand out in their purity and appeal to human rationale. Looking at other religions, the flaws in their beliefs are very apparent where they ascribe partners to God and weaknesses like fatigue, sleep and hunger, and incompatible stories of gods fighting each other, engaging in inappropriate behaviour and so on.Moreover, Islam gives a sense of integrity and honour for the prophets as recipients of divine revelation, yet this is denied by the Christians and Jews who ascribe crimes such as murder, incest and drunkenness to them. It thus becomes clear that the concept of an existing being that possesses such complete ability, knowledge, and greatness; Who has subdued the creation; Who has encompassed everything in the universe, small or large; and Who possesses such perfect mercy – all of this must be from the true God and not the invention of any human being or philosopher. It is also worthy to note the context in which the Qur’an was revealed – amongst a people heavily engrossed in superstitious beliefs and strange practices, none of which adulterate the pristine teachings of Islam.

6. The laws and sharee'ah that the Qur'an came with, and the morals and conduct that it called for. All of this leads to the betterment of life in this world and in the Hereafter. The perfection of a set of laws that can be applied to any society at any time and place is humanly impossible, and the sharee'ah is the only example of such a set of laws.
What I have asked is: can you prove Shariah law does any of the things you have suggested, particularly in terms of being applied to any society and any time and place? Can you prove it leads to the betterment of society when applied as a comprehensive system?
Perhaps the most obvious example is that during the life of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) himself. A society so steeped in evil practices such as tribal wars, murdering of children, drinking and gambling, prostitution and cruel treatment of women etc. was completely transformed. This transformation is something that many have marvelled at. When Prophet Mohammed (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) began preaching Islam, Durant notes,

`Arabia was a desert flotsam of idolatrous tribes; when he died it was a nation.’ W. Durant: The Age of Faith, Simon and Shuster, New York, 1950. Chapter VIII; p.174.
And the historian Michael S. Hart ranked the Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) as the most influential figure in history.

The sharee’ah continued to be studied and implemented throughout the Muslim lands, not being outdated over the passage of time or change of place. There are ample references to the tolerance and humane aspects of Muslim civilisation, and the nature of Muslim rule in various places. For example:
This prosperity and the Golden Age did not just end in the Middle Ages, rather this pattern continued for many centuries to come. In some places Jews were so comfortable with the Islamic system that they deliberately applied to Shari’ah courts for the purpose of attaining justice and arbitration, even when they had complete autonomy in their religious affairs [i.e. they had their own courts to refer to]. For instance, Amnon Cohen, another American Jewish historian, studied the 16th century documents stored in the archives of the Shari’ah religious court of Jerusalem (commonly known as sijill), whereby he found 1000 Jewish cases filed form the year 1530 to 1601 CE. Cohen published his research in 1994 and during his research he made some astonishing discoveries, as he himself states:

"Cases concerning Jews cover a very wide spectrum of topics. If we bear in mind that the Jews of Jerusalem had their own separate courts, the number of cases brought to Muslim court (which actually meant putting themselves at the mercy of a judge outside the pale of their communal and religious identity) is quite impressive[21]…The Jews went to the Muslim court for a variety of reasons, but the overwhelming fact was their ongoing and almost permanent presence there. This indicates that they went there not only in search of justice, but did so hoping, or rather knowing, that more often than not they would attain redress when wronged…The Jews went to court to resolve much more than their conflicts with Muslim or Christian neighbours. They turned to Shari’a authorities to seek redress with respect to internal differences, and even in matters within their immediate family (intimate relations between husband and wife, nafaqa maintenance payments to divorcees, support of infants etc.)."
http://www.islam21c.com/index.php?o...al-perspective&catid=36&Itemid=80#notes#notes

Even today, the solutions for the problems of society lie in following the sharee’ah. To appreciate this, a proper study of the sharee’ah is required and many examples will then become apparent of how it is applied, the benefits it can bring, and so on. This is a topic in itself and if interested, you can read into it elsewhere. We may have some threads on the forum, such as this one: http://www.islamicboard.com/discover-islam/4498-shariah-law.html

There is no system of man-made laws that has remained unchanged or provided a perfect set of rules for the betterment of society.

7. Scientific facts mentioned in the Qur'an that were unknown at that time.
This is something I want to go over in more detail in this post. It seems that to ‘see’ the science in the Qur’an one has to wear rose-tinted glasses. I have already commented on the so-called ‘miracle verses’ describing the orbits of the sun and moon, the water cycle, the description of female bees leaving the hive and the production of milk, which is perhaps the obscurest yet. The ‘Big Bang’ verse is of the same nature although it is being discussed in another thread and whatever that verse describes, it isn’t the big bang, although I once convinced myself that it did.
I don’t think it’s that difficult, actually. Although these scientific references may be brief, the miraculous aspect appears in the fact that even in these limited descriptions, the Qur’an conforms exactly to modern science and that there was no way for people to know about such things during that time. Moreover, these descriptions are free from the retroactive ideas that would have been prevalent at that time. The comments you made earlier weren’t exactly refutations but mere opinions that don’t disprove anything. By the way, I didn’t mention anything about the Big Bang.

As I said before, embryology in the Qur’an foremost scientific claim considering it relates to something entirely unobservable by Muhammad and is mentioned twice in the Qur’an. From the first link it is discussed that Surah 23, in its apparent meaning mentions bones forming before flesh, which is the opposite of what actually happens:

Dr. Abdel-Rahman argues around this by saying that ‘the primordia of both the bone and muscle are present together with those of bones and other tissues in a collective primitive structure during the first 40 days … however in this stage the primordial of muscle have not yet differentiated into definitive bones and muscles.’

But the verse is explicit in saying bones then flesh, whereas if we look at what Keith Moore, a professor who is much praised in the second link you gave me, has written in his book, we find:

‘The skeletal and muscle system develops from the mesoderm, some of which becomes mesenchymal cells. These mesenchymal cells make muscles, and also have the ability to differentiate...into osteoblasts which make bone. At first the bones form as cartilage models so that by the end of the sixth week the whole limb skeleton is formed out of cartilage but without any bony calcium.’

What this is saying is that muscles form before bones, rather than around them. I do not see how what Dr. Abdel-Rahman wrote in any way refutes this.
The verses pertaining to embryology are actually more than two – some mentioning other aspects of it. Regarding what you’ve quoted above, I don’t see where the contradiction is and there is no mention of muscles being formed before bones. Both authors agree that when the cartilage bones are differentiated, the embryonic connective tissue or mesenchyme around them is undifferentiated. If you quoted the rest of Dr. Abdel-Rahman’s words, the matter would have become clearer. He goes on to say, “…During the seventh week- the skeleton begins to spread throughout the body and the bones take their familiar shapes. The embryo then starts to acquire the human appearance. At the end of the seventh week and during the eighth week the muscles take their positions around the bone forms…”

Now as an aside, can I just ask the Muslim biology experts what the clot refers to in 23:14? And why is this translated as a ‘clinging form’ in some translations and a ‘clot’ in others?
Different translators have used different wordings to interpret the same word.

An interesting point to note is, if you see the various stages of development of the embryo, one notices how strikingly similar the Qur’anic references are to particular stages: http://www.quranandscience.com/human/135-dr-keith-moore-confirms-embryology-in-quran.html

Another aspect of the embryological references in the Qur’an is how the embryo is surrounded by three layers: the abdominal wall, the uterine wall, and the placenta with its choriono-amniotic membranes. These three layers are referred to in the verse,

…He creates you in the wombs of your mothers, creation after creation in three veils of darkness… [39:6]

8. The fact that it has been protected and remained unchanged over such a long period of time, despite the fact that all other religious books have been distorted.
All the other religious books have been distorted according to your beliefs. Christians believe their Bible is the authentic Bible and Jews believe their Torah is the authentic Torah. Inconsistencies in the Bible do not automatically mean the Bible is an altered version of an original book called the ‘Injeel’ brought down by Jesus just because the Qur’an says so. The most sensible explanation is that Jesus never brought any book and that his followers instead developed a religion around him which incorporated their own pagan beliefs. To use the inconsistencies in the Bible and Torah to try and add credibility to the Qur’an is like standing on the third floor of a tower and saying ‘This floor is the most stable because the two floors below it are completely unstable!’
I didn’t say the corruption of the Torah and Bible in and of itself proves the Qur’an is true, rather the point is regarding the uniqueness of the Qur’an in its preservation. If you make an objective comparison between these scriptures, you will find a clear difference. No other book has been memorised as much as the Qur’an, and neither can it be traced back through such a large number of chains of narration going right back to the Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), leaving no doubt of its authenticity. In fact, you said earlier, “I don’t deny that the Qur’an is the most authentic religious book…” (post #163).

9. The compilation of the Qur'an and the diligence with which all the knowledge essential for its understanding has been preserved (such as the causes of revelation behind specific verses, verses revealed in Makkah/Madeenah, abrogation etc.)
The reason I did not comment on this one earlier is because it is simply saying that the material needed for the Qur’an to be fully understood has been preserved. If the Qur’an explained itself fully in the first place then this supplementary material would not have been required. Therefore if anything this weakens the Qur’an’s position. For a book to be conceived over 20 years and to still require so much abrogation and further explanation is utterly confounding.
This has nothing to do with the clarity of the Qur’an, because clarity is not negated by requisite knowledge. Knowing about the causes of revelation behind specific verses and whether verses were revealed in Makkah or Madeenah, together with the other sciences of the Qur'an, all aid in one’s understanding of the Qur’an. The fact that such minute details have been preserved till this day leaves one in awe of how meticulously Islamic knowledge has been preserved and further increase one's conviction in the truth of the Qur'an.

As for the issue of abrogation, you can read about it here:
http://www.load-islam.com/artical_det.php?artical_id=531&section=indepth&subsection=Glorious Quran


10. The miraculous nature of the various ways and manners of reciting the Qur'an (the ahruf and qira'aat).
See previous posts.

11. The ease by which it is memorised, and this is known by experience and observance.This is in contrast to all other religious books, for none of them are memorised like the Qur'an.
See previous posts

12. The deep meanings that are present inside it, and the fact that a reader never tires of reading the Qur'an, no matter how many times he has heard it or read it. This is in contrast to any other book, since a person cannot read it more than a few times without it getting monotonous and mundane.
See previous posts

13. The impact that the Qur'an has on those who hear it and the euphonious quality of the Qur'an.
I’ve browsed through the previous posts and it appears you stopped responding to these points. You cannot therefore conclude points 10, 12 and 13 are “purely subjective”, and doing so simply seems like a cop-out. You called number 11 a “self-fulfilling prophecy” – do you want to explain what exactly you mean by that?

The reason I jump from one ‘weak’ theory to another is because the claims of the Qur’an’s divinity is based upon one weak theory after another! It is almost like if you throw enough ‘proofs’ at it something will stick.
If the Qur’an was based upon “weak” theories, it should have been very easy for you to refute them. Instead, all I am finding in your posts is vague expressions like “purely subjective”, “simply irrelevant” and “personal opinions”, which don’t mean anything if not supported by evidence and explanation. It’s an easy way out of the discussion to disregard whole topics by labelling them with empty words instead of responding to individual points.

The problem if one starts mentioning say, Shakespeare or Yeats, in terms of literature superior to the Qur’an, is that you will then answer that ‘the Qur’an is not a book of poetry or prose.’ If we criticise the ‘science’, you will then answer that ‘the Qur’an is not a book of science’. If we then say well, the Qur’an has questionable ideas of justice, you will say ‘well it is from God so believe it or prepare to suffer, no skin off our noses!’ When we ask why it is from God, you say ‘produce a single surah like it.’ And so the cycle continues.
Again, an over-simplification and misrepresentation of the facts. We’ve already discussed literary excellence and science above, so I’m not going to repeat that here. If you have real criticisms to make, you can present them in the appropriate place. As for your other comments, where has anyone used these arguments? I clearly listed 13 aspects of the Qur’an’s miraculous nature -not simply a one sentence reply, so if you really want to know the answer to your questions, it would help if you stopped repeating the same errors and actually accept the responses we’ve given.

Regards.
 
Greetings Hugo,

I was not aware that I was offering an interpretation as such just asking a question, pointing out a difficulty for me if no one else.
Wrong. It is very obvious from your post that you haven't simply asked a "question". If you had asked a question, it would have been something like, "does this verse mean xyz?" or "is there a contradiction here?". But you were stating what the verse means, using this as a premise to base other allegations - "Therefore, it is evident from the above citations that the author of the Quran believed that at least the books of Moses, met the Quran’s challenge to produce something like it."

I'm not really sure why I have to go back and quote your posts for you like this, surely you can see the dishonesty for yourself?

What puzzles me here is that Muslim's often say the Qu'ran is 'clear' yet here you seem to imply that it is not; that one has to be 'qualified', that somehow God cannot speak to me but but has to do it through an intermediary as if (is there?) an official answer to every question and I have no alternative but to accept it?
It's very simple. Not everybody can just pick up the Qur'an and start interpreting it. Rather a person needs to be qualified in terms of their Islamic knowledge in order to do this. Since it is the inherent nature of language that allows for the possibility of misinterpretations in practically any set of instructions, God sent a messenger with the scripture to explain it and demonstrate how to implement it's teachings. The teachings of the Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) are referred to as the Sunnah, and the Qur'an and the Sunnah form the sources of legislation and guidance in Islam. Thus, for one to determine the ruling on any particular issue it entails sound knowledge of both these sources. So anyone can understand the Qur'an so long as they invest the time to acquire knowledge of these two sources. You can't just go from a superficial reading of a medical textbook to acting as a doctor and treating patients in the hospital, you need to study in medical school first. Knowledge is a prerequisite in any field. The fact that you need knowledge in no way negates the clarity of the texts you are acquiring knowledge from. They are two seperate issues.

I am aware that there are other verses and indeed I searched for them as well as searched the hadith so please don't try to suggest that this query is unthoughtful.
Well it is clear that your search was unsuccessful, and that is not an excuse to go ahead and interpret the verse as you like.

With regard to the Preserved Tablet if you read my post I asked you what it was, was it a 'real' book, was it to be understood figuratively, why did God need a book to write things in but you did not ask far as I can recall answer.
You will find the answer near the beginning of post #289, as well as in the earlier posts.

This is to me a strange idea, when I interpret it is suit myself but you are by implication above that.
Meaning what, exactly?

Here you have no real argument but prefer to assume I am disrespectful, an Islam hater, my intentions are not honourable. You say I take them out of context but how can we tell how big or small a context is also I might point out for example in Billal-A thesis below in this thread he offers no context and often cuts off part of a verse but I don't see you jumping on him and telling him he is engaging in self interpretation, he is disrespectful or hateful - why is that?
I didn't actually assume you were an Islam-hater, I simply said that your action was characteristic of what such people do and that, "I hope you will refrain from repeating this, otherwise one can only make negative assumptions about your intentions." I don't know why you have to turn this into a matter of "you have no real argument" when we are not debating something here; it's an observation that is unmistakeable. If you don't understand what the context is, perhaps you shouldn't be interpreting in the first place. And as for trying to justify your actions by pointing out others' mistakes, it would be more appropriate to first admit your own mistake before trying to cast others in a bad light. I haven't read Billal-A's thesis by the way and if you have any objections to it, perhaps you can raise it with the author himself.

The rest of your questions seemed to have an undertone of sarcasm which was quite unnecessary. I think the main issue is what I've just said above.

It's a big shame that our discussion has been reduced to this. I hope that we can base our discussions on points of value rather than wasting time and effort in needless arguments. If that is all that remains, however, then it will mean the end of the thread.

Regards.
 
Wrong. It is very obvious from your post that you haven't simply asked a "question". If you had asked a question, it would have been something like, "does this verse mean xyz?" or "is there a contradiction here?". But you were stating what the verse means, using this as a premise to base other allegations - "Therefore, it is evident from the above citations that the author of the Quran believed that at least the books of Moses, met the Quran’s challenge to produce something like it."

I'm not really sure why I have to go back and quote your posts for you like this, surely you can see the dishonesty for yourself?

I take absolute exception to this and I find it not helpful that you in effect call me a liar. If you find the way I ask questions not to your liking that is a long long way from me being dishonest. In the case you mentioned above I outlined in detail an argument which seems logical to me and it becomes a question for you. That is in the nature of the challenge that this thread deals with - the challenge in the Qu'ran ask that something be brought and that is what my post did, the challenge does not say 'ask what a verse means'? The opportunity is then for you to offer a response - why is that dishonest?

If you simply expect me to say 'what does this verse mean' and the accept whatever answer you give then to me that means we are not listening to each other. I have been as careful as I can and spent a lot of time outlining the various principles that at least I would use - no one commented on those as far as I know.

Does it not occur to you that your responses are often peppered with personal comments about insincerity, untruthfulness, lack of understandinbg and so on but almost exclusivity to those who are sceptical.
 
It's very simple. Not everybody can just pick up the Qur'an and start interpreting it. Rather a person needs to be qualified in terms of their Islamic knowledge in order to do this. Since it is the inherent nature of language that allows for the possibility of misinterpretations in practically any set of instructions, God sent a messenger with the scripture to explain it and demonstrate how to implement it's teachings. The teachings of the Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) are referred to as the Sunnah, and the Qur'an and the Sunnah form the sources of legislation and guidance in Islam. Thus, for one to determine the ruling on any particular issue it entails sound knowledge of both these sources. So anyone can understand the Qur'an so long as they invest the time to acquire knowledge of these two sources.....

One can see you point of course but but the message was not just given to scholars was it and what we seem to have here is almost an injunction not to study the Qu'ran on your own but always do it with an 'official' interpretation. It is interesting that the Roman Catholic church went through a similar phase when the clergy were simply afraid that the laity might get it wrong and even went so far as burning those who read the Bible and understood it for themselves - I am all for using a commentary but I will not subscribe to the kind of theological oppression you describe.

Well it is clear that your search was unsuccessful, and that is not an excuse to go ahead and interpret the verse as you like.

Did I say I was successful but what would success mean for you and how would you know when you get it? Is every question answerable? In the case of the preserved tablet in post 289 you simply said I had it wrong but did not as far as I can see go any further to answer my question as to what exactly it was; real or an analogy or perhaps something else?

I didn't actually assume you were an Islam-hater, I simply said that your action was characteristic of what such people do and that, "I hope you will refrain from repeating this, otherwise one can only make negative assumptions about your intentions.".... I haven't read Billal-A's thesis by the way and if you have any objections to it, perhaps you can raise it with the author himself.

Why is it so hard for you to be even handed, do you not see that I can make negative assumptions about the way you act. In terms of Billal-A paper he published it in the thread and I have responded to it here - was that wrong?

It's a big shame that our discussion has been reduced to this. I hope that we can base our discussions on points of value rather than wasting time and effort in needless arguments. If that is all that remains, however, then it will mean the end of the thread.

I cannot fathom this, I and other have presented arguments but I must ask you if you really have the intent to deal with them or cannot face them.
 
I have given you reasons all throughout. Textual integrity alone is enough to cast the bible as none other but a work of fiction of idle scribes, as you yourself don't claim that it is a word of God and how can it?

You are simply avoiding the question. You listed what you regarded as criteria and did not describe any of then or say how it could be measured. Here again you speak of 'textual integrity' but no definition, no scale on which to measure and not example to illustrate your methods. In any case I have to ask would you be able to do it honestly or start out with the assumption it is perfect?

Show me the word 'two works' in the verse above or 'Torah or the Quran' at all. Show me that in Arabic the way I have labored to translate word for word above and show me that the torah is what is intended in the exegesis of scholars and the tafsirs of jallayen and ibn kathir.

You may have done all this but you studiously avoided verse 49 and disconnected it from v48 with no translation from you - what is there to hide? You say I think that the 'two works' were signs of some kind but I asked why 2 as there were 12. I asked if it is not the Qu'ran or Bible what is it talking about in v49, what are these scriptures?

One final point. you say you laboured to do the translations but so did the 7 translators I looked at unless you regard yourself as superior to them all - do you?
 
You are simply avoiding the question. You listed what you regarded as criteria and did not describe any of then or say how it could be measured. Here again you speak of 'textual integrity' but no definition, no scale on which to measure and not example to illustrate your methods. In any case I have to ask would you be able to do it honestly or start out with the assumption it is perfect?
really? All the links from bart Eherman on misquoting Jesus isn't enough to dent textual integrity?



You may have done all this but you studiously avoided verse 49 and disconnected it from v48 with no translation from you - what is there to hide? You say I think that the 'two works' were signs of some kind but I asked why 2 as there were 12. I asked if it is not the Qu'ran or Bible what is it talking about in v49, what are these scriptures?


tell me how verse 49 requesting from the people to bring their own book alludes to your desired rendition? Go ahead and show me where 'Torah' is mentioned or that requesting that is people don't like what the prophet mohammed (p) brought to bring their own book, denotes that the previous verse was speaking about the torah?

One final point. you say you laboured to do the translations but so did the 7 translators I looked at unless you regard yourself as superior to them all - do you?
Only one translator added (torah/Quran) the rest had no allusion whatsoever about 'books'. in fact, even if I accept 'two works' of magic, which the verse doesn't say, it easily denotes that Moses had his brand of magic splitting seas etc., while prophet Mohammed had written magic -- and that of both time folks didn't believe in what was brought to them..

Not only are you reading what you want to read (from a translation) but you are completely ignoring scholarly exegesis which far preceded modern translation..

you keep losing battles, but I love your fighting spirit. Unfortunately when you go on a field it is better to be equipped with knowledge than psychobabble!

all the best
 
As an addendum:. as a question of logic alone (forget the arabic and the proper age old exegesis) but why would folks who were given a book as their miracle, request an older book as their miracle? Sometimes I worry about you approaching the world with such a linear tract of thoughts..

all the best
 
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As an addendum:. as a question of logic alone (forget the arabic and the proper age old exegesis) but why would folks who were give a book as their miracle, request an older book as their miracle? Sometimes I worry about you approaching the world with such a linear tract of thoughts..

all the best

As an addendum:. as a question of logic alone (forget the arabic and the proper age old exegesis) but why would folks who were give a book as their miracle, request an older book as their miracle? Sometimes I worry about you approaching the world with such a linear tract of thoughts..

So what would happen if a new book showed up, the book of Mormons for example. Many people believe this too. And somebody uses the logic you are using now. How would they ever come to the conclusion they were wrong? There are always new books around, how do you know you have found the right one? Why doesn't Allah then just send 1 uniform message to every human being, stick it on his forehead the moment he becomes adult and responsible?

This is my main issue now. I WANT to believe, I want most urgently to believe but... however can I understand this? What happens to a person that happened to be born in an area where the religion is non-islamic? How on earth is this person supposed to know not to follow his own new prophet, he should have followed Muhammad pbuh, but what a shame Muhammad pbuh was living 1400 years ago and brought a book in a completely foreign language? What if we brought a new book to the Muslim world in Dutch, and told them this is word of God, would they even consider it? No of course not, because muslims already convinced of one Prophet. But what if you accidentally meet and follow the wrong prophet? Is this the will of Allah for you to be misled? Are you supposed to be led by your fitrah then?

Who is brought up in a christian region believing in christianity thus committing shirk, but who never heard even of the word shirk? Then islam starts talking about fitrah, but why have prophets anyway then if you have fitrah? Is the general idea then, that all these people are bound to be lost if it wasnt for the message of tawheed that came to save them? But why then wait for 600 years and now leave the people without a Prophet for 1400 years? Isnt it massively disadvantegeous for people being born now then?

And even now I am born, I am born in western society where everything is 100% different than in society of Muhammad pbuh. What if my inner morals tell me with 100% security that it is WRONG to kill another person for any religion or reason, that it is WRONG to sleep with a female captive under any circumstance, that it is WRONG to condemn gays for being gay? This is the way I was brought up, this is environment that Allah has made me born in, and I am told always for 28 years in a row to believe this. Am I being deceived by the devil in this case? Can I in Islam, trust my own thinking in any way? Honestly it is making me paranoid, I don't even trust my own way of seeing the world in anything anymore. Will Allah punish me in hell for following my own human moral compass that tells me I am not supposed to use violence against anyone? I KNOW that I won't be able to kill a human being or hurt anyone for no reason. I am not even able to kill a fly without feeling guilty ;-).
 
Sister reema2009, I think many of the doubts which you raised will be clarified if you read through the entire thread Inshaa'Allah.
 
Uthmān;1281239 said:
Sister reema2009, I think many of the doubts which you raised will be clarified if you read through the entire thread Inshaa'Allah.

salaam Uthman,

thank you, I will be reading and reading until I die I guess and hope to find the truth someday. As stated by the quote under your messages.

peace,

Ilse
 
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