Re: Did Yahweh create Jesus?..If Yahweh had created Jesus then....... who is superior
There are numerous accounts in the New Testament which deny Jesus’ divinity.
For example, in Matthew 19:17, Jesus responded to one who addressed him as “O good master”, saying: “Why callest thou me good? There is none good but one, that is God.” If he rejected being called “good”, and stated that only God is truly good, he clearly implies that he is not God.
In John 14:28, Jesus was saying: “The Father is greater than I.” By stating that the “Father” is greater than himself, Jesus distinguishes himself from God. Also in John 20:17, Jesus told Mary Magdalene to tell his followers: “I ascend unto my Father and your Father; and to my God and your God.” Jesus’ reference to God as “my Father and your Father” further emphasizes the distinction between himself and God. Furthermore, by referring to God as “his God”, he left no room for anyone to intelligently claim that he was God.
Even in some of the writings of Paul, which the Church has taken to be sacred, Jesus is referred to as a “man”, distinct and different from God. In 1st Timothy, 2:5, Paul writes: “For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus.”
No, the above passages do NOT deny Jesus' divinity. First, you must read them very carefully, and not read INTO them something that He did NOT say. Secondly, you must read them in the context of His earthly ministry in which He humbled Himself (positionally) when He left heaven to take on human form, submitting totally to the Father in everything He did, said, and thought (our perfect example). Finally, you must read them in the greater context of the entire New Testament with other passages that bear on the subject.
I've heard all these passages quoted by other people, specifically Jehovah's Witnesses, who use them to try to disprove Christ's Deity. As Peter said of others, they wrestle with the Scriptures "to their own destruction" (2 Peter 3:16).
Let's look at the first passage. The rich young ruler addresses Jesus with a question, "Good Master, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?" He first replies, "Why do you call me
good? There is none good but one, God." Now notice what He says and what He does NOT say. He says, God is the only one who is good. But He does NOT say that HE, Jesus, is NOT good. In fact, He says elsewhere, "I am the
good shepherd; the good shepherd gives his life for the sheep" (John 10:11). Elsewhere He also affirms His sinlessness (John 8:46; see also 2 Cor. 5:21; 1 Peter 2:22; 1 John 3:5). So He is not saying that HE is not good. He is simply looking for an acknowledgment from the ruler that if he’s going to call Jesus "good" he must also recognize Him as God. And you will notice, the ruler does not do that. In verse 20 of Mark 10, he changes the address to simply, “Master.” And finally, if the ruler had recognized Jesus as God, he would have obeyed Him, doing everything He said. But he didn’t. Instead, he went away sorrowful (Matt. 19:22; Luke 18:23) and grieved (Mark 10:22).
In the second passage, John 14:28, Jesus says to His disciples (let’s look at the entire verse):
"You have heard Me say to you, `I am going away and coming back to you.' If you loved Me, you would rejoice because I said, `I am going to the Father,' for My Father is greater than I.”
In His humbled state, in the form of a servant/slave as He walked this earth, Jesus rightly referred to the Father as “greater,” but in terms of what? Certainly at that time, in terms of position and glory, both of which Jesus had temporarily set aside for our sakes to be “made flesh” (John 1:1,14). You say, “By stating that the “Father” is greater than himself, Jesus distinguishes himself from God.” Correction, He distinguishes Himself from the Father. And no one says they aren’t distinguishable---they are indeed separate personages. But remember, BEFORE He was made flesh and dwelt among us, He was “the Word” Who was WITH God (the Father) and WAS God (i.e., Deity, in essence, substance and nature)—John 1:1. So, if He WAS GOD, or DEITY, He cannot ever cease to be that, even though He humbled Himself to take on the form of a servant/slave. So the “greater” cannot refer to deity, but rather position or glory.
In the second passage, we see Jesus in speaking to Mary Magdalene referring to His ascending to “my Father and your Father and my God and your God.” I’ve had Jehovah’s Witnesses slide up to this verse, verse 17 of John 20, after being unable to adequately explain away the clear statement of verse 28 where Thomas addresses the risen Christ with, “My Lord and my God,” which Christ does not correct or deny. Because there is no correction, we can conclude that the Father is Thomas’ God (from verse 17) as well as Christ is Thomas’ God (v. 28). Does Thomas have two Gods? No, because the Trinity says three Persons in ONE God.
But the real concern with John 20:17 is that Christ Himself refers to the Father as “my God.” I used to wonder about that until I saw Hebrews 1:8, in which the Father in speaking TO THE SON says, “Your throne,
O God, is for ever and ever; a scepter of righteousness is the scepter of your kingdom.” So here we see the Father calling the Son “God”! And if that’s so, the Son can refer to the Father as “my God” and the Father can refer to the Son in the same way, or at least as “God.” So, to me, John 20:17 is not a problem. By the way, while you’re looking at Hebrews, chapter 1, for verse 8, look at verse 6 too. There you have the Father telling all the angels to worship the Son. Now, if Jesus is just a man, how can angels be told to worship Him? Only God is to be worshipped, right? Right. But since the Son is God, that’s not a problem either.
Finally, Paul in 1 Timothy 2:5 says “there is one God and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus.” The reference to “the man” Christ Jesus is referring to His humanity in which He lived a perfect, sinless life, thereby qualifying Him to BE our mediator between a holy, righteous God and us sinful men. It is not because Jesus is God that qualifies Jesus to be our mediator. It is because He was a sinless MAN that qualifies Him. He is our sinless, perfect High Priest Who is not only the mediator or intercessor between God and us for our sins’ sake, but in fact is the very Offering for sin Himself at the Cross. Only as a MAN could He die and shed His blood as an atonement for sins. Consider Hebrews 10:10-14:
10. . . . we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.
11. And every priest stands ministering daily and offering repeatedly the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins.
12. But this Man, after He had offered one sacrifice for sins forever, sat down at the right hand of God,
13. from that time waiting till His enemies are made His footstool.
14. For by one offering He has perfected forever those who are being sanctified.
So Christ is the Offering or “the Lamb of God” who takes away the sin of the world, as John the Baptist said (John 1:29), as well as our advocate, intercessor, and mediator with the Father (1 John 2:1).
Now, if the angels are told to worship Him, can we do any less? Remember, we are to
honor Him
just as, or
to the same extent that, we honor the Father Who sent him (John 5:23).
Peace
. I think You can't catch me here (or any other christian in fact). We can always make one step back, into Trinity dogma, which is difficult to be logicly underminded. 
