I honestly appreciate your honest modification of your thoughts regarding the passage under discussion
from
The passage does tell us why Thomas uttered "my Lord and my God"
He would need to see with his own eyes. And then he did. And when he did, he realized that this man whom he had come to know as God's anointed was more than just anointed by God, but was in fact God among them. That is why Jesus praised him for his belief. .
To
The passage doesn't tell us why Thomas uttered "my Lord and my God"
The passage doesn't tell us why Thomas uttered "my Lord and my God". ,What I have said that Thomas doubted was the other disciples' statements that Jesus was alive We are only told the reason that he believed Jesus was alive -- namely that he saw him with his own eyes..
Truly and honestly I appreciate your modification, me being honest and objective in study,If I were you ,I would really do the same..
though I disagree with you in the following:
the context of the passage bears out that his usage was not merely some sort of exclamatory comment of excitement nor a titular use of the words
If we agree that the context of the passage affirms that Thomas doubted the other disciples' statements that Jesus was alive.and after he saw him with his own eyes,he believed he was alive.on the other hand Jesus did absolutely nothing special to provoke Thomas to call him God,as you said,The passage doesn't tell us why Thomas uttered "my Lord and my God",moreover Jesus doesn't say anything about Thomas' statement ,He just emphasizes Thomas' belief that Jesus was really alive , which he doubted......
in light of all that It is wise to arrive to the conclusion:
the phrase "my Lord and my God" is not only at odd with the context but also
claiming that Jesus is Lord and God is a violation of scripture, which asserts that there is One God, the Father and One Lord, Jesus.
"...yet for us there is but one God, the Father...and one Lord, Jesus Christ ...(I Corinthians 8:6)
Glorify the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ. -- Romans 15:6.
Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ. -- 2 Corinthians 1:3; Ephesians 1:3; 1 Peter 1:3.
Ehrman in (The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture) highlighted the problem :
Another passage that can be taken to suggest that Christ is "God" himself (i.e., ho theos, with the article) occurs near the end of the Fourth Gospel, and here again one should not be surprised to
find scribes modifying the text. Upon seeing the resurrected Jesus, Thomas exclaims, "My Lord and my God" (ho theos mou).
The passage has caused interpreters problems over the years; Theodore of Mopsuestia argued that the words were not addressed directly to Jesus but were uttered in praise of God the Father.
Modern commentators have also found the phrasing problematic, because unlike the statement of 1:1, where the Word is theos (without the article), here Jesus is expressly entitled ho theos. How can one avoid drawing from this designation the conclusion that he is the one and only "God"? Several scribes of the early church adroitly handled the matter in what can be construed as an anti-Patripassianist corruption: the predecessor of codex Bezae and other Gospel manuscripts simply omitted the article. Jesus is divine, but he is not the one "God" himself. (Ehrman, The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture: The Effect of Early Christological Controversies on the Text of the New Testament [Oxford University Press, USA; paperback edition, 1993], p. 266)
John's comments immeidiately following that pericope make it clear that he is using Thomas' comments as substantive declarations backing up his own claims regarding Jesus.
Have you read John's comments !?
29Then Jesus told him, "Because you have seen me, you have believed; blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed."
30Jesus did many other miraculous signs in the presence of his disciples, which are not recorded in this book. 31But these are written that you may believe that
Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name.
by using the term; the Christ, the
Son of God ,John could have backed up his own claims regarding Jesus from anywhere else but Thomas' phrase "my Lord and my God" !!!!
In sum and substance the text may only make sense if it is like that:
John20:26
week later his disciples were in the house again, and Thomas was with them. Though the doors were locked, Jesus came and stood among them and said, "Peace be with you!" 27Then he said to Thomas, "Put your finger here; see my hands. Reach out your hand and put it into my side. Stop doubting and believe." 28Thomas said to him,
"My Lord!"
29Then Jesus told him, "Because you have seen me, you have believed; blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed."
Accepting it any other ways, would bless you with a passage has more holes in it than a backdoor screen.....
IbnAbdulHakim said:
arguing with altered scriptures is futile
The altered ,forged scripture ,eg John 20:28, is easy target ,and doesn't resist the objective study......