Trumble
IB Expert
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So what facts are exactly you are talking about. Can you list down them as to how you are saying something different than "the_prince". Something like:
1.the_prince=
you=
2.the_prince=
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I'm really sorry for asking so much but I would really like to understand as to what is that you two are arguing about which I failed to grasp.
Very well.
We seem to agree on one point; that the 'winner' of that (or any) war should be considered the side that best achieves their objectives at the outset of the campaign. The_Prince is suggesting that it is a 'fact' that the Arab side did so, and 'won' while the Israelis failed to do so and therefore 'lost'. He seems to think that the only reason people might think there was an Israeli victory was because they killed more enemy soldiers (which is not disputed), but nowhere can I see any evidence anybody does think that.
The facts are as follows. The Arab side had two objectives in 1973, the Egyptians to seize back the Sinai and the Syrians the Golan Heights, both territories having been occupied by Israel in 1967. They had several reasons for wanting to do so, not only restoration of pride and territorial integrity but both areas, particularly Golan, were of considerable strategic importance as buffer zones between Israel and hostile neighbours. The Israelis had the objectives of retaining control of those areas and (should things have gone really pear-shaped) of preventing further Syrian incursion into Israeli controlled territory. The war ended with Israel in possession of the Golan Heights, indeed they had pushed the Syrians back beyond the 1967 border. The war ended with Israel in possession of the Sinai, and their troops had crossed the canal and were pushing on into Egypt. While Egyptian troops remained on parts of the east bank of the canal their position was, by that time, untenable and withdrawl would have been inevitable (if it was still possible) to prevent being surrounded and cut off. In my opinion, therefore, the Israelis achieved all their objectives and the Arabs none (other than, as I said earlier, perhaps restoring some military pride). I see no evidence whatsoever that supports the reverse conclusion.
Several years later, the Sinai was returned to Egypt as part of the Israel/Egypt peace agreement. The_Prince seems to be claiming that this was somehow a direct consequence of Egyptian military success and formed part of the cease-fire terms. It did not. Both Egypt and Israel had good reasons to do a deal (and the Israelis were under huge pressure from the Americans to do so).. a deal which, incidently, was roundly condemned by most other Arab nations which is hardly indicitive that THEY saw it as any sort of 'victory'. The Israelis were happy enough to hand it over as they had no real territorial claim there, it is mostly uninhabited desert and, with peace agreed, no need for a military buffer zone. Such a peace was never agreed with Syria, hence the Israelis remain in possession of the Golan.
As you will appreciate, all of that has nothing whatsoever to do with who may 'support' the "Zionist regime" or not. There are a great many articles on the war available on the internet from a variety of sources, so you may wish to do some further research yourself if you are interested.
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