Suomipoika
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I need example of this - the only thing i can think of is the Almiriovids
I don't really remember who ruled then, I just remember during the 11th (this might be wrong too) century there were massacres of various sizes in muslim controlled Spain.
I found this from the evil and false wikipedia:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/1066_Granada_massacre
No, the scale was nothing like in Christian Europe, and yes, at times they treated Jews better. I don't really see the relevance of these facts tho. The arguement wasn't which ones during Europe's history killed Jews more, Muslims or Christians but that they both did so and indiscriminately.
True but the weapons today do far more damage then they ever did before and even the sort of weapons that are used in modern times in europe are far worser. The nazis, the british bombing of dresden and the communist invasion of Poland and Germnay was realy bad - indiscrimnate killings, concentration camps/ gas chambers - mass rape and pillaging with worse weapons.
Errr? How does better weaponry change the morality of the issue? How is bombarding city with a catapult morally different than bombarding it with a howitzer? How is the mass rape and pillaging with less worse weapons any more better? Besides the main weapon used in rape, mass or otherwise, hasn't really changed from medieval period.
As a side note I cannot think of a such widespread refrain from rape from large armies from Medieval period as the US and UK army conquering Germany in WW2.