Re: Prove that the Quran Is not the word of God.
In the name of Allah Most Gracious Most Merciful
Say; He is God one and only
God eternal, absolute
He begetteth not nor is he begotten
And there is no one like him
To my fellow non-muslims, may peace and blessings be upon you.
Greetings Nicole how are you? Waow a lot has been posted while I was away, anyways, I’ll begin by answering your question inshallah (God willing)
And would not have killed him if they had believed that he was their long-awaited Messianic. The unbelieving Jews had Jesus killed because they believed he was a false Messiah..
I believe you just answered your own question, the Jews rejected Jesus as being the messiah, that’s why they where uttering these words in mockery.
Ibn Kathir Tafsir:
The Jews ("We killed Al-Masih, `Isa, son of Maryam, the Messenger of Allah,'') meaning, we killed the person who claimed to be the Messenger of Allah.
The Jews only uttered these words in jest and mockery, just as the polytheists said (O you to whom the Dhikr (the Qur'an) has been sent down! Verily, you are a mad man!).
I hope that answered your question, now I hope to ask you some questions regarding Jesus = God, but lets deal with one at a time.
Why do you believe that the word
“God” used in the phrase
John 1:1
“…and the Word was God” means “God” (the almighty) the
definite form?
Let me make it clearer; the Greek word for ‘God’ used in the phrase “
and the Word was with God,” is the definite form Hotheos, meaning ‘The God’.
However, in the second phrase
“and the Word was God”, the Greek word used for ‘God’ is the indefinite form Tontheos, which means ‘a god’.
Consequently, John 1:1, should more accurately be translated,
“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.”
Therefore, if the Word was a ‘god’ in the literal sense, it would mean that there were two Gods and not one.
Let me explain “and the word was God” – which in simple terms is –
Word = God (the definite form), hence lets substitute the word “God” for “Word” we get
“In the beginning was the God (word), and the GOD (word) was with GOD…”
You can see this indicates 2 Gods being present at the same time
“God was with God”
However, in Biblical language, the term ‘
god’ is used metaphorically to indicate power. For example, Paul referred to the devil as “god” in
2nd Corinthians 4:4,
“In their case the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, to keep them from seeing the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the likeness of God.”
Moses is also referred to as “god” in
Exodus 7:1,
“And the Lord said unto Moses, ‘See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh; and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet.”
Now if we translate the original meaning of the indefinite form for “God” which is “god” with a little “g”, which metaphorically indicates power, we get the following - Word = power (“god”)
Let’s substitute this in to the verse
“In the beginning was the power, and the power was with God…”
Now that’s clearer don’t you think?
However even if you disagree, then explain why, the same Greek word for “God” (the indefinite form) was used to identify the Devil and Moses?
If we agree with you, then we have to agree that the
Devil = God and Moses = God.
By the way, why do you say Mohammad’s scripture, with all due respect didn’t you read my previous post -
how it is impossible for Mohammad to have written such an immaculate book like the Quran. Let me know if you haven’t read that post ill try posting it again inshallah (God willing).
take care
"With Him are the keys of the unseen, the treasures that none knoweth but He. He knoweth whatever there is on the earth and in the sea. Not a leaf doth fall but with His knowledge: there is not a grain in the darkness (or depths) of the earth, nor anything fresh or dry (green or withered), but is (inscribed) in a record clear (to those who can read). "
(Al-Anaam, Chapter #6, Verse #59)
