Re: Prove that the Quran Is not the word of God.
Well I can accept that as a statement of religious belief, but as a historical fact? How do you know? May I ask you my Rajam question again? Umar said that there used to be a verse on stoning that they recited (as if, I assume, it was part of the Quran). There is no such verse there now. As has been explained to me that verse has been abrogated. Which is fine by me, but when was it abrogated?
I'm lost agen :rollseyes
Sorry. From the Sahih Bukhari, Volume 8, Book 82, Number 817:
Narrated Ibn 'Abbas:
>deletions<
In the meantime, 'Umar sat on the pulpit and when the callmakers for the prayer had finished their call, 'Umar stood up, and having glorified and praised Allah as He deserved, he said, "Now then, I am going to tell you something which (Allah) has written for me to say. I do not know; perhaps it portends my death, so whoever understands and remembers it, must narrate it to the others wherever his mount takes him, but if somebody is afraid that he does not understand it, then it is unlawful for him to tell lies about me. Allah sent Muhammad with the Truth and revealed the Holy Book to him, and among what Allah revealed, was the Verse of the Rajam (the stoning of married person (male & female) who commits illegal sexual intercourse, and we did recite this Verse and understood and memorized it. Allah's Apostle did carry out the punishment of stoning and so did we after him.
I am afraid that after a long time has passed, somebody will say, 'By Allah, we do not find the Verse of the Rajam in Allah's Book,' and thus they will go astray by leaving an obligation which Allah has revealed. And the punishment of the Rajam is to be inflicted to any married person (male & female), who commits illegal sexual intercourse, if the required evidence is available or there is conception or confession.
Now according to this, Muslims used to recite a verse which called for the stoning of married men and women who committed adultery. And they do, in fact, stone in theory married men and women for this. But now there is no such verse in the Quran. Ansar Al-Adl provided a very good explanation saying that it had been abrogated, text and all. But the question that only occurred to me later was when was it abrogated but I didn't ask because it was too late. So when was this verse abrogated?
You see how it looks to a non-Muslim? I can accept that you believe that the Quran is unchanged and that is a perfectly respectable belief from where I sit. But I am not a Muslim and this looks odd to me. Now of course smarter people than me must have noticed this and there must be a sensible reason, but it still looks odd.