Quran VS Bible , a thoroughly comparative study,arranged by items

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Thank you for pointing this out and I hope that I did not quote Imām Al-Fakhr Al-Rāzī out of context. If I did the I apologize. But I find it difficult to reconcile what he says there (that Surah 5:41: "refers to both kinds of corruption ,as they were both twisting the meaning, and alter the written text as well") with what he also said: "it is impossible to alter the written text of a book that was handed down in unbroken and widespread succession."

Had he changed his mind when he said that?

By the way, sorry to take so long to reply. I've been frantically busy and had a bout of illness.

Here is an example 66 or 73 book which books should there be in the bible - for centuries christians had no problem with the 73 books later in the 16th century (reformation) a group decided to threw some books out of the bible - There you go the bible has clearly been changed. You have what christains claim the inspired word of God and then some men in the 16th century decide to take books out of the library- centuries after christ.

There is also the example of Moses being buried - once again somebodies been messing around with the text - clear cut proofs that the the Torah you have today and the "gospel" have been tamperd with by men.
 
Thank you for pointing this out and I hope that I did not quote Imām Al-Fakhr Al-Rāzī out of context. If I did the I apologize.

No need to apologize , the work is not available in English ... to blame you for that.

But I find it difficult to reconcile what he says there

I agree with you . the writer provided two contradictory views !! ..... and that should be enough for the christian critics ,to avoid quoting him in such specific matter....

for the sake of argument let's assume that the text X for thousands of years been preserved without any textual editing, does that mean that its content is wholly true?

let's assume that the bible textually been preserved completely,from the first minute the scribes wrote it , but does that mean what it tells is the truth, the whole truth and nothing but the truth?

the Quran accuses the Jews as writing parts of the bible with their hands claiming it to be from God but it is not from God's inspiration ....

If the source of the Quran (whatever you may call him) was motivated to attack merely the christian ,jewish interpretation of the bible (imitiating the unitarians etc...), he wouldn't have negated the basic established biblical issues eg; crucifiction ,blood atonement , may be divinity of Jesus etc.....

and that is a basic lesson ,the christian critics should get before any discussion reagarding how the Quran views the bible.....

IF Mohamed peace be upon him(assuming him as the source of the Quran) believed the bible fully textually valid,why he negates the crucifiction,resurrection for example?
 
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The law of food with the children of Israel ,according to the Quran, had stages:

1- Pre-torah era:

Holy Quran 3:93 All food was lawful to the children of Israel except that which Israel(Jacob) had forbidden to himself, before the Taurat was revealed.

up till the revelation of the law of the torah , All food was lawful to the children of Israel except that which Israel(Jacob) had forbidden to himself....

but what does that mean?

It seems that the children of Israel imitiated their father Jacob,avoiding some food he had forbidden to himself ....


2- Torah revelation till other new strict laws :

Holy Quran 4:160
And because of the iniquity (or injustice) of the Jews, We have forbidden them the good things which We had made lawful for them.

the verse refers to 1- a time when God revealed a law (Torah) making a distinction between the good and the bad and
2- later time when God revealed a strict law a s a part of his punishment on the Jews due to their injustice ,aggreession ....


3- afterwards, some strict laws :

the Quran - 6:146 And for the Jews We have forbidden all that have claws; and from the cattle and the sheep We forbade their fat except what is attached to the back, or entrails, or mixed with bone. That is a punishment for their rebellion, and We are truthful.

all beasts ,birds etc that have nails,claws were forbidden .... rabbits ,falcons etc...

to be concluded next post,InshahAllah....
 
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Holy Quran: Behold! the angels said: "O Mary! Allah giveth thee glad tidings of a Word from Him: his name will be Christ Jesus, the son of Mary.

God's word in the verse doesn't refer to scripture but to divine decision, and the divine decision or promise can never be altered ....

Regards

That is a very interesting verse, especially with the emphasis you elected to make. Where would one find commentaries on this passage from an Islamic perspective?
 
Does the Qur'an make the same accusation about Christians and their writings?

Well you have paul, Luke, John, Matthew and Mark - Paul came way after christ - so is this the Injeel of christ pbuh or a library created after Christ pbuh? Its not rocket science.
 
I don't think that really addresses Hiroshi's question.

And the answer to your question requires you answer one first.
When you ask, "Is this the Injeel of Christ?" you have to tell us whether you are simply using the Arabic term Injeel, which when translated into English means Gospel, or are you using the technical term for a particular set message that the Qur'an alleges Jesus delivered, but which it then also claims has been totally lost to history so that no one can actually review it today.


The term "Injel" is not an English term, but a transliteration of the Arabic إِنْجِيلِ which, when properly translated, is rendered "Gospel". Thus it seems that by using the term "Injel" rather than "Gospel" you are intentionally desiring to speak of something different than the gospel, but rather this alleged Injel of which no one can even find testimony of its existence outside of the Qur'an. So rather obviously, when the Injel is to be defined as an alleged product that no longer exists, and Matthew, Mark, Luke, John and the works of Paul do exist, then they are not going to be the Injel. However, they are indeed a record of the gospel of Jesus Christ. The word gospel you see does not come from the Arabic term إِنْجِيلِ , but from the Greek term ευαγγελιου. And while the term ευαγγελιου is most commonly translated into English as "Gospel", it literally means "good message." And that is why the Injel could never be the true Gospel of Jesus Christ in place of the works of Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, and Paul, for the Qur'an tells us that Jesus only brought a message similar to what Muhammad delivered. And that message is one which does testify to the oneness and greatness of God -- no problem thus far -- but with regard to mankind, the message is no different than that of Judaism. If people want to experience God's grace, their only hope is to work hard for it, jump through all sorts of hoops, and then know that in the end you still don't have any promises. That might be a good challenge, it certainly promotes a good way of life. But the primary message is: "You had better pick yourself up by your own bootstraps and fly right, because if you don't God's coming along and gonna knock you down." That is more of a good threat than good news.

On the other hand, Mark -- 1:1 αρχη του ευαγγελιου ιησου χριστου (The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God) -- tells us that he has a ευαγγελιου, a good message that (because the term ευαγγελιου is in the genitive case) is expressed in relationship that is connected with Jesus Christ. If Mark had met to say it was a message by Jesus, he would have written using the dative case or even the vocative case. But as Mark writes of this gospel using the genative case he is declaring that the goodness of the message has to do with what the message tells us about Jesus. Thus it is that all that Mark (or any of the other good news writers for that matter) relate to us of the things that Jesus himself said are only preliminary, laying the background for the truly exciting good news which is yet to come. And that good news is that in Jesus God has finally done something that he had been promising he was going to do since the time of Isaiah, God had sent his anointed one to his people to by God's power and God's mighty work and the goodness and grace of God, not human effort, not human goodness, redeem them and set the world right again. And Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, Paul, and even others such as Peter, Jude and the author of Hebrews declare that this God did in the person and work of the man Jesus, who was more than just a man, but God's anointed agent for that purpose. Somehow the Injel the Qur'an speaks of missed that part of the message. So, no, Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John are not an alleged Injel, with a message that demands humans have to live up to some impossible, unachievable divine standard. Rather, Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John (and yes, in a way even the works of Paul) are a declaration of good news, a message that God has done the hard work, in Jesus we have been made right with God not by human effort, but by divine act and decree. Of course people are still called to live lives of submission to God and his ways, but when we fall short of the perfection he rightly demands of us, his creation, he accepts the anointed one's perfectedly submitted life as a substitute for ours as we accept his grace through faith. And that's why Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John are called gospels (and not Injel), because they contain a message that really is one of good news for all who will receive it.


(NOTE TO MODS: I realize that this post may be construed as a violation of forum rules as it does indeed lay out a message other than that of Islam. I didn't write it for that purpose, but because of Zafran's question. Over and over Muslims and Christians debate whether or not the Gospels of the NT are corrupted, and two of the reasons that Muslims claim they are is because they present a different message than what Islam projects to be in the Injel, and because they differ than the Qur'an with regard to the events of Jesus' life. What never seems to get said by anyone, it is precisely those differences that make the Gospels gospels in the first place. To present the supposed message of the Injel would be to present something that, at least from the Christian perspective, would NOT be gospel at all, for it wouldn't be a message of genuine good news. In light of the fact that this is comparative religion, and a thread on the difference between the Qur'an and the Bible, and this question focused on whether or not the existing books of the NT recorded the Injel which Zafran termed "gospel", I felt that this was the time to try to draw that distinction between our two completely different understandings as to what is and what is not a gospel message. With respect, I hope you will allow the post to stand.)
 
The law of food with the children of Israel ,according to the Quran, had stages:

1- Pre-torah era:

Holy Quran 3:93 All food was lawful to the children of Israel except that which Israel(Jacob) had forbidden to himself, before the Taurat was revealed.

up till the revelation of the law of the torah , All food was lawful to the children of Israel except that which Israel(Jacob) had forbidden to himself....
According to Genesis 9:4 God said to (before the Torah) Noah: "Only you shall not eat flesh with its life, that is, its blood." This prohibition on eating blood must apply to the whole human family since all of us are descendants of Noah.
 
No need to apologize , the work is not available in English ... to blame you for that.



I agree with you . the writer provided two contradictory views !! ..... and that should be enough for the christian critics ,to avoid quoting him in such specific matter....
I believe that you are right.
 
If the source of the Quran (whatever you may call him) was motivated to attack merely the christian ,jewish interpretation of the bible (imitiating the unitarians etc...), he wouldn't have negated the basic established biblical issues eg; crucifiction ,blood atonement , may be divinity of Jesus etc.....

and that is a basic lesson ,the christian critics should get before any discussion reagarding how the Quran views the bible.....

IF Mohamed peace be upon him(assuming him as the source of the Quran) believed the bible fully textually valid,why he negates the crucifiction,resurrection for example?

The Qur'an contains some very good and detailed accounts of stories from the Old Testament. But it contains very little, hardly anything, from the New Testament. Perhaps Mohamed had only scanty knowledge of the NT and did not realise that he was directly contradicting the text.
 
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for the sake of argument let's assume that the text X for thousands of years been preserved without any textual editing, does that mean that its content is wholly true?
What convinces you that the text of the Qur'an is wholly true?
 
The Qur'an contains some very good and detailed accounts of stories from the Old Testament. But it contains very little, hardly anything, from the New Testament. Perhaps Mohamed had only scanty knowledge of the NT and did not realise that he was directly contradicting the text.

This makes sense if one rejects the idea that the Qur'an was a divinely inspired, even dictated work, from God. Now, of course you do reject that, but it isn't going to fly from an Islamic point of view. Allah would have had perfect knowledge of the events of Jesus' life, presumably even better than those disciples who other "witnesses" to whom it appeared that Jesus was crucified when he, if one accepts the Qur'an's version of events, reportedly was not.
 
Well you have paul, Luke, John, Matthew and Mark - Paul came way after christ - so is this the Injeel of christ pbuh or a library created after Christ pbuh? Its not rocket science.
More importantly, as Al-manah pointed out, the Qur'an teaches things that directly conflict with Luke, John, Matthew, Mark and Paul. So that leads the Muslim to assume that the writings of Luke, John, Matthew, Mark and Paul do not contain the pure Injeel.
 
This makes sense if one rejects the idea that the Qur'an was a divinely inspired, even dictated work, from God. Now, of course you do reject that, but it isn't going to fly from an Islamic point of view. Allah would have had perfect knowledge of the events of Jesus' life, presumably even better than those disciples who other "witnesses" to whom it appeared that Jesus was crucified when he, if one accepts the Qur'an's version of events, reportedly was not.
I suppose you are right.

I personally think that Mohamed must have been horrified when he saw the amount of idolatry with images, trinitarian ideas and worship of saints, etc. that had corrupted the Christianity of his time. And so he rejected much of Christian thinking.
 
I don't think that really addresses Hiroshi's question.

And the answer to your question requires you answer one first.
When you ask, "Is this the Injeel of Christ?" you have to tell us whether you are simply using the Arabic term Injeel, which when translated into English means Gospel, or are you using the technical term for a particular set message that the Qur'an alleges Jesus delivered, but which it then also claims has been totally lost to history so that no one can actually review it today.


The term "Injel" is not an English term, but a transliteration of the Arabic إِنْجِيلِ which, when properly translated, is rendered "Gospel". Thus it seems that by using the term "Injel" rather than "Gospel" you are intentionally desiring to speak of something different than the gospel, but rather this alleged Injel of which no one can even find testimony of its existence outside of the Qur'an. So rather obviously, when the Injel is to be defined as an alleged product that no longer exists, and Matthew, Mark, Luke, John and the works of Paul do exist, then they are not going to be the Injel. However, they are indeed a record of the gospel of Jesus Christ. The word gospel you see does not come from the Arabic term

Peace Gene,

Here Muslims and Christians often have a difference of opinions in the meanings of the words Injil and Gospel. To be honest I do not believe there is an English word for Injil and Gospel is used as an approximation.

The word Gospel which is of Germanic origin and used nearly exclusively for the Books of John, Mark, Mathew and Luke. You gave a very good definition of what is meant by Gospel to Christians in the remainder of your post. But that does not fit the concept of Injil as understood by Muslims.

While Injil could be reasonably translated as the German "Gotts Spel" Meaning God's Word. The Injil does carry that the concept of the 4 Gospels of the bible. We do believe the Injil is actually God's (swt) Word and not the inspired word of man.

S


Gotts Spel which later became the English "Godspel" Which carries 2 meanings God's Word and Good Word. However as you explained this came to be used almost exclusively to mean 4 specific books of the NT. These books can not be the Injil as we believe the Injil was revealed to Jesus(as) and those4 Books were not given to Jesus(as)

I probably caused more confusion.

But I do thank you for your views of the gospel and I think that does show the difference between Muslim and Christian in the concept of Gospel.
 
I don't think that really addresses Hiroshi's question.

And the answer to your question requires you answer one first.
When you ask, "Is this the Injeel of Christ?" you have to tell us whether you are simply using the Arabic term Injeel, which when translated into English means Gospel, or are you using the technical term for a particular set message that the Qur'an alleges Jesus delivered, but which it then also claims has been totally lost to history so that no one can actually review it today.


The term "Injel" is not an English term, but a transliteration of the Arabic إِنْجِيلِ which, when properly translated, is rendered "Gospel". Thus it seems that by using the term "Injel" rather than "Gospel" you are intentionally desiring to speak of something different than the gospel, but rather this alleged Injel of which no one can even find testimony of its existence outside of the Qur'an. So rather obviously, when the Injel is to be defined as an alleged product that no longer exists, and Matthew, Mark, Luke, John and the works of Paul do exist, then they are not going to be the Injel. However, they are indeed a record of the gospel of Jesus Christ. The word gospel you see does not come from the Arabic term إِنْجِيلِ , but from the Greek term ευαγγελιου. And while the term ευαγγελιου is most commonly translated into English as "Gospel", it literally means "good message." And that is why the Injel could never be the true Gospel of Jesus Christ in place of the works of Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, and Paul, for the Qur'an tells us that Jesus only brought a message similar to what Muhammad delivered. And that message is one which does testify to the oneness and greatness of God -- no problem thus far -- but with regard to mankind, the message is no different than that of Judaism. If people want to experience God's grace, their only hope is to work hard for it, jump through all sorts of hoops, and then know that in the end you still don't have any promises. That might be a good challenge, it certainly promotes a good way of life. But the primary message is: "You had better pick yourself up by your own bootstraps and fly right, because if you don't God's coming along and gonna knock you down." That is more of a good threat than good news.

On the other hand, Mark -- 1:1 αρχη του ευαγγελιου ιησου χριστου (The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God) -- tells us that he has a ευαγγελιου, a good message that (because the term ευαγγελιου is in the genitive case) is expressed in relationship that is connected with Jesus Christ. If Mark had met to say it was a message by Jesus, he would have written using the dative case or even the vocative case. But as Mark writes of this gospel using the genative case he is declaring that the goodness of the message has to do with what the message tells us about Jesus. Thus it is that all that Mark (or any of the other good news writers for that matter) relate to us of the things that Jesus himself said are only preliminary, laying the background for the truly exciting good news which is yet to come. And that good news is that in Jesus God has finally done something that he had been promising he was going to do since the time of Isaiah, God had sent his anointed one to his people to by God's power and God's mighty work and the goodness and grace of God, not human effort, not human goodness, redeem them and set the world right again. And Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, Paul, and even others such as Peter, Jude and the author of Hebrews declare that this God did in the person and work of the man Jesus, who was more than just a man, but God's anointed agent for that purpose. Somehow the Injel the Qur'an speaks of missed that part of the message. So, no, Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John are not an alleged Injel, with a message that demands humans have to live up to some impossible, unachievable divine standard. Rather, Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John (and yes, in a way even the works of Paul) are a declaration of good news, a message that God has done the hard work, in Jesus we have been made right with God not by human effort, but by divine act and decree. Of course people are still called to live lives of submission to God and his ways, but when we fall short of the perfection he rightly demands of us, his creation, he accepts the anointed one's perfectedly submitted life as a substitute for ours as we accept his grace through faith. And that's why Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John are called gospels (and not Injel), because they contain a message that really is one of good news for all who will receive it.


(NOTE TO MODS: I realize that this post may be construed as a violation of forum rules as it does indeed lay out a message other than that of Islam. I didn't write it for that purpose, but because of Zafran's question. Over and over Muslims and Christians debate whether or not the Gospels of the NT are corrupted, and two of the reasons that Muslims claim they are is because they present a different message than what Islam projects to be in the Injel, and because they differ than the Qur'an with regard to the events of Jesus' life. What never seems to get said by anyone, it is precisely those differences that make the Gospels gospels in the first place. To present the supposed message of the Injel would be to present something that, at least from the Christian perspective, would NOT be gospel at all, for it wouldn't be a message of genuine good news. In light of the fact that this is comparative religion, and a thread on the difference between the Qur'an and the Bible, and this question focused on whether or not the existing books of the NT recorded the Injel which Zafran termed "gospel", I felt that this was the time to try to draw that distinction between our two completely different understandings as to what is and what is not a gospel message. With respect, I hope you will allow the post to stand.)

my apologies to the OP, but time only permits me to address the fisrt bit of this rot. to wit:

The term "Injel" is not an English term, but a transliteration of the Arabic إِنْجِيلِ which, when properly translated, is rendered "Gospel". Thus it seems that by using the term "Injel" rather than "Gospel" you are intentionally desiring to speak of something different than the gospel, but rather this alleged Injel of which no one can even find testimony of its existence outside of the Qur'an.

When we speak of the Injeel, we are speaking of the Message given to Isa ibn Marriam. your statement implies the that either your “God the Father” NEVER gave a coherent Message to Isa ibn Marriam, or as you would associate partners with Allah, “God the son” OR that Isa ibn Marriam or “Jesus of Nazareth” [a name by which NO FOLLOWER OF HIS EVER CALLED, nor was he known by for a millennia] was INCAPABLE of delivering said Message!
As for “testimony of its existence outside of the Qur'an,” you would lay a false claim that Deuteronomy 18:18 refers to “Jesus of Nazareth” [a name by which NO FOLLOWER OF HIS EVER CALLED, nor was he known by for a millennia]. Let’s review this passage shall we:
“18 I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their fellow Israelites, and I will put my words in his mouth. He will tell them everything I command him.” IF this were to refer to your “associate God” [which it doesn’t], then we would define the “Injeel” as “the words that God put in the mouth of Isa ibn Marriam and which he was commanded to speak!” the fact that our present varieties of Christians felt no obligation to record and or maintain those “words that God put in the mouth of Isa ibn Marriam and which he was commanded to speak” is the reason that Allah planned for and sent the Final Messenger, Muhammad ibn Abdullah, Sallla Allahu Alayhee wa Salaam!
IF, Christians believed that Jesus of Nazareth was the fulfillment of those words, why DIDN’T they preserve them in a proper “chain of evidence?”

So rather obviously, when the Injel is to be defined as an alleged product that no longer exists, and Matthew, Mark, Luke, John and the works of Paul do exist

Actually, 7 letters of Paul exists, but there is no contemporaneous forensic evidence of ANY writings by authors named Matthew, Mark, Luke or John! It is simply IMPOSSIBLE for you to make any claims about the words of Jesus of Nazareth based upon factual evidence! In fact, to paraphrase YOUR Gospels, you can only make claims based upon “a house made of sand” and NOT one built upon “a house of stone!”
While we MAY agree on 7 of the letters attributed to Paul, who did your “associate god” give the “keys to the kingdom of heaven to? we see addressed to Peter: Matt 16:19 “I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven; whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven." NIV. Where is the preserved authentic “Gospel according to Peter?”
If you have any contemporaneous forensic evidence of the “words that God put in the mouth of Isa ibn Marriam and which he was commanded to speak,” please present it!

However, they are indeed a record of the gospel of Jesus Christ. The word gospel you see does not come from the Arabic term إِنْجِيلِ , but from the Greek term ευαγγελιου. And while the term ευαγγελιου is most commonly translated into English as "Gospel", it literally means "good message

The works of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John are indeed “anonymous” books of unknown origin, which you as a Christian value MORE than “words that God put in the mouth of Isa ibn Marriam and which he was commanded to speak.” To therefore make the following claim: “And that is why the Injel could never be the true Gospel of Jesus Christ in place of the works of Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, and Paul, for the Qur'an tells us that Jesus only brought a message similar to what Muhammad delivered” is absurd! You must first know WHAT Isa ibn Marriam actually said BEFORE you can speak contemptuously of the writings of the Qur’an.
And that message is one which does testify to the oneness and greatness of God -- no problem thus far -- but with regard to mankind, the message is no different than that of Judaism. But it IS different than that of the triune godship of Christianity!

If people want to experience God's grace, their only hope is to work hard for it, jump through all sorts of hoops, and then know that in the end you still don't have any promises. That might be a good challenge, it certainly promotes a good way of life

To firstly address this, your vtreatmewnt of the Words of Allah:

Al Kahf 18:56:
And We send not the Messengers except as giver of glad tidings and warners. But those who disbelieve, dispute with false argument, in order to refute the truth thereby. And they treat My Ayat (proofs, evidences, verses, lessons, signs, revelations, etc.), and that with which they are warned, as jest and mockery!

And for the “promises of Allah,” we further read in 18:1-2:

All the praises and thanks be to Allah, Who has sent down to His slave (Muhammad SAW) the Book (the Quran), and has not placed therein any crookedness.
(He has made it) Straight to give warning (to the disbelievers) of a severe punishment from Him, and to give glad tidings to the believers (in the Oneness of Allah Islamic Monotheism), who work righteous deeds, that they shall have a fair reward (i.e. Paradise).

And in 18:29-31:
And say: "The truth is from your Lord." Then whosoever wills, let him believe, and whosoever wills, let him disbelieve. Verily, We have prepared for the Zalimun (polytheists and wrong-doers, etc.), a Fire whose walls will be surrounding them (disbelievers in the Oneness of Allah). And if they ask for help (relief, water, etc.) they will be granted water like boiling oil, that will scald their faces. Terrible the drink, and an evil Murtafaqa (dwelling, resting place, etc.)!
Verily! As for those who believe and do righteous deeds, certainly! We shall not suffer to be lost the reward of anyone who does his (righteous) deeds in the most perfect manner.
These! For them will be 'Adn (Eden) Paradise (everlasting Gardens); wherein rivers flow underneath them, therein they will be adorned with bracelets of gold, and they will wear green garments of fine and thick silk. They will recline therein on raised thrones. How good is the reward, and what an excellent Murtafaqa (dwelling, resting place, etc.)!

18:46:
Wealth and children are the adornment of the life of this world. But the good righteous deeds (five compulsory prayers, deeds of Allah's obedience, good and nice talk, remembrance of Allah with glorification, praises and thanks, etc.), that last, are better with your Lord for rewards and better in respect of hope.
18:88:
"But as for him who believes (in Allah's Oneness) and works righteousness, he shall have the best reward, (Paradise), and we (Dhul-Qarnain) shall speak unto him mild words (as instructions)."

18:107-108:
"Verily! Those who believe (in the Oneness of Allah Islamic Monotheism) and do righteous deeds, shall have the Gardens of Al-Firdaus (the Paradise) for their entertainment.
"Wherein they shall dwell (forever). No desire will they have to be removed therefrom
."

Of course the reason that you remain blind to this is that your religion is founded on the ridiculous idea that you MUST associate partners with Allah! Nowuthubillah!
We see in an authentic Hadeeth Qudsi:
Hadith Qudsi 34
On the authority of Anas (may Allah be pleased with him), who said: I heard the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) say:
"Allah the Almighty said:
'O son of Adam, so long as you call upon Me and ask of Me, I shall forgive you for what you have done, and I shall not mind. O son of Adam, were your sins to reach the clouds of the sky and were you then to ask forgiveness of Me, I would forgive you. O son of Adam, were you to come to Me with sins nearly as great as the earth and were you then to face Me, ascribing no partner to Me, I would bring you forgiveness nearly as great as it.'"


[At-Tirmidhi (also by Ahmad ibn Hanbal). Its chain of authorities is sound.]
As Muslims we rely totally on the Mercy of Allah as seen on this Hadeeth Qudsi:
Hadith Qudsi 33
On the authority of Abu Hurayrah (may Allah be pleased with him) that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him), from among the things he reports from his Lord (mighty and sublime be He), is that he said:
"A servant [of Allah's] committed a sin and said: 'O Allah, forgive me my sin.' And He (glorified and exalted be He) said: 'My servant has committed a sin and has known that he has a Lord who forgives sins and punishes for them.' Then he sinned again and said: 'O Lord, forgive me my sin.' And He (glorified and exalted be He) said: 'My servant has committed a sin and has known that he has a Lord who forgives sins and punishes for them.' Then he sinned again and said: 'O Lord, forgive me my sin.' And He (glorified and exalted be He) said: 'My servant has committed a sin and has known that he has a Lord who forgives sins and punishes for sins. Do what you wish, for I have forgiven you.'"

[Muslim (also by al-Bukhari).]

It is bothersome when you make jest at the commands of Allah we even, according to YOUR book, we see Isa ibn Marriam have this conversation in Matt 19:
16 Just then a man came up to Jesus and asked, “Teacher, what good thing must I do to get eternal life?”
17 “Why do you ask me about what is good?” Jesus replied. “There is only One who is good. If you want to enter life, keep the commandments.”
18 “Which ones?” he inquired.
Jesus replied, “‘You shall not murder, you shall not commit adultery, you shall not steal, you shall not give false testimony, 19 honor your father and mother,’[c] and ‘love your neighbor as yourself.’[d]”
20 “All these I have kept,” the young man said. “What do I still lack?”
21 Jesus answered, “If you want to be perfect, go, sell your possessions and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven. Then come, follow me.”
22 When the young man heard this, he went away sad, because he had great wealth.
23 Then Jesus said to his disciples, “Truly I tell you, it is hard for someone who is rich to enter the kingdom of heaven. 24 Again I tell you, it is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle than for someone who is rich to enter the kingdom of God.”

So you are saying that Jesus meant Again I tell you, it is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle than for someone who is rich to”jump through all of the hoops necessary” to enter the kingdom of God? :hmm:

May Allah protect us!

:wa:
 
Does the Qur'an make the same accusation about Christians and their writings?

As I said before, the New testament is a JEWISH production ....... the proofs that the writers of the NT were Jews is overwhelming.....


According to Genesis 9:4 God said to (before the Torah) Noah: "Only you shall not eat flesh with its life, that is, its blood." This prohibition on eating blood must apply to the whole human family since all of us are descendants of Noah.

The Quranic verse is specified for such period from Jacob till Torah revelation....
anyway ,where according to such verse Jacob or his children ate blood?


The Qur'an contains some very good and detailed accounts of stories from the Old Testament. But it contains very little, hardly anything, from the New Testament. Perhaps Mohamed had only scanty knowledge of the NT and did not realise that he was directly contradicting the text..

IF he had never heard about a new testament crucifiction! , why would he bring the issue on the Quran denying it?!!!

What convinces you that the text of the Qur'an is wholly true?.

the internal evidence itself ..not who,where,when it was written...


the Qur'an teaches things that directly conflict with Luke, John, Matthew, Mark and Paul. So that leads the Muslim to assume that the writings of Luke, John, Matthew, Mark do not contain the pure Injeel..

yes they contain it mostly (details in next posts)...


I personally think that Mohamed must have been horrified when he saw the amount of idolatry with images, trinitarian ideas and worship of saints, etc. that had corrupted the Christianity of his time. And so he rejected much of Christian thinking..

Mohamed's problem(assuming him not God as the source of Islam) with christianity is even bigger.........

as one should be horrified not only with the christian trinity ,and other shirk ideas but also the idea that the grace of God, not human effort, not human goodness, redeem them .just God's giving them his blood ...a dogma that perversed the position of God ,making him the servant of man , not man as the servant of God .... a dogma that contributed hugely to the lack of morality of most of those who adhere to it.....such message, though seems good news for some ,seems bad news for others...

Surah 7:157 describes these as "the Torah and the Gospel which are with them."

I agree with you ... I will prove (using the Quran verses) without any reasonable doubt that the parts which record the sayings of Jesus in the 4 gospels mostly HAS TO BE most of the Injeel .....

a concept of lost injeel of Jesus is something would contradict the Quran (details later).....


Grace-seeker said:
That is a very interesting verse, especially with the emphasis you elected to make. Where would one find commentaries on this passage from an Islamic perspective?

that what next post ,would be about...
 
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As I said before, the New testament is a JEWISH production ....... the proofs that the writers of the NT were Jews is overwhelming.....
I understand.


The Quranic verse is specified for such period from Jacob till Torah revelation....
anyway ,where according to such verse Jacob or his children ate blood?
1 Samuel 14:42 says: "They pounced on the plunder and, taking sheep, cattle and calves, they butchered them on the ground and ate them, together with the blood."
 
I understand.

1 Samuel 14:42 says: "They pounced on the plunder and, taking sheep, cattle and calves, they butchered them on the ground and ate them, together with the blood."

IF the previous record is true it shows merely a case of violation of the law...

31 That day, after the Israelites had struck down the Philistines from Mikmash to Aijalon, they were exhausted. 32 They pounced on the plunder and, taking sheep, cattle and calves, they butchered them on the ground and ate them, together with the blood. 33 Then someone said to Saul, “Look, the men are sinning against the LORD by eating meat that has blood in it.”

it doesn't proof that the children of Israel (even those who ate blood) thought of blood eating as legal according to the law ....
 

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