Sex with slaves in Islam

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again, you twist everything that the Qur'an and hadiths say. this is not the first time.

Please tell me where in the qur'an that allows muslims to withhold provisions for slaves in exchange for sex?

I didn't say that a hadith said this. I was simply pointing to history, women without options DO use sex as a bargaining tool to get extra provisions for their children. In addition, if the wife must obey her husband (4:34) then surely the slave has no more rights than a wife?

All I see is the following
1: A slave women who cannot leave her slavery
2: A man who can have sex with her whom she must obey
 
sources from Qur'an or hadith please?

I have already quoted both.
1: Slave who cannot leave - slavery wasn't immediately abolished, therefore some slaves were not free to leave immediately.
2: A women must obey - Quran 4:34
 
1: Slave who cannot leave - slavery wasn't immediately abolished, therefore some slaves were not free to leave immediately.

and where's the hadith and quran verse about this?

or are you attributing your own opinion to quran?

2: A women must obey - Quran 4:34

a woman or a wife?

This is what you get when an atheist pretends he can understand and interpret the Qur'an.
Do you even speak arabic?
also, why don't you quote the whole context, telling us all the responsibilites of the husband towards his wife, and the responsibilities towards the slaves?
why focusing on cutting and shredding ONE verse, while surely understanding that in Islam and especially the Qur'an we cannot cherry picking, but accept the whole thing?
 
and where's the hadith and quran verse about this?

I think it is universally understood that slavery wasn't instantly eradicated by Islam. I don't think I need to prove that, do I?

a woman or a wife?

Are you suggesting a wife needs to obey her husband but a slave does not, giving the slave a right the wife does not have?


also, why don't you quote the whole context, telling us all the responsibilites of the husband towards his wife, and the responsibilities towards the slaves?

Because whether or not the slave master has to feed his slaves isn't relevant to whether or not women were caused to suffer due to a single verse which gives a man permission to have sex with them. There is a verse outright forbidden prostituting them out to other people, that's a good thing! But no verse saying that the slave master cannot have sex with them, in fact it outright gives permission for this. When a man can marry up to 4 wives why does he need permission to have sex with slaves? And how is it just to give permission to have sex with women who are clearly under duress?
 
...Because whether or not the slave master has to feed his slaves isn't relevant to whether or not women were caused to suffer due to a single verse which gives a man permission to have sex with them. There is a verse outright forbidden prostituting them out to other people, that's a good thing! But no verse saying that the slave master cannot have sex with them, in fact it outright gives permission for this. When a man can marry up to 4 wives why does he need permission to have sex with slaves? And how is it just to give permission to have sex with women who are clearly under duress?

I have already explained to you there is a discrepancy in the translation of Surah 23, verse 6. It is better to seek information about this from a scholar or sheik, because this goes far beyond layman knowledge.

Anything else related to slavery has already been explained on this thread via a myriad of links (and we are in fact going around in circles right now), so I see absolutely no reason to keep this thread open any longer.

Edit: here are some more links (in addition to the ones already given) on the matter:
http://www.answering-christianity.org/request_freedom.htm

http://www.answering-christianity.org/slaves_treatment.htm

http://www.islam.tc/cgi-bin/askimam/ask.pl?q=3489&act=view[/QUOTE]
 
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