Mikayeel
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Since people are getting a bit tetchy, feel free not to answer this, but I am genuinely interested and i'm not just trying to stir it up.
I thought that the words said were supposed to hold true for all people for all time, otherwise why would people still be expected to follow it, and why would all people be judged in the final days... but it sounds like you're excusing it because of when it was revealed.
Yes while there may have been a small group of arabs who were following the teachings to the letter back in the day the whole rest of the world was acting as it always has done and most of these prophecies, particularly regarding behaviour, could have been fulfilled by non-muslims at any time in history.
I wouldn't mind some serious opinions on this, thanks
To me this doesnt make alot of sense to be honest. It does hold true for all people for all time, but can you understand that the day of judgement comes only ones?
Are you trying to say that for each nation there should be a different end of the world and a day of judgement? These signs only come towards the end of the world.
What i ment by 1400 years ago, is that these predictions are spot on with todays reality. While most of these predicitons were not even occuring back then.