When was the Bible corrupted?

I totally agree with both points and then no need to discuss

I don't agree at all with both of them....

Isaiah 53 is not a prophecy at all,and if one is seduced to apply its fulfillment,one could easily apply it to millions...

you ask how?

let's take a look at the passage:

the servant according to Isaiah is said to be:


1-the kings shall shut their mouths because of him (52:15)

If the servant is Jesus then,what kings shut their mouths because of Jesus?

2-He is despised and rejected of men" (53:3).

How many persons else were despised rejected of men?

many,I don't have time to count them as there are millions.

3-a man of sorrows, and acquainted with grief..." (53:3)

How many men of sorrow?

4-we hid as it were our faces from him (53:3)
If we means the Jews,they did not hide their faces from him but condemned him many times.....If we means others ,that is not real and never happened.

5-he is brought as a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is dumb, so he openeth not his mouth 53:7

According to John 18:21-23 ("Why askest thou me? ask them which heard me, what I have said unto them: behold, they know what I said. And when he had thus spoken, one of the officers which stood by struck Jesus with the palm of his hand, saying, Answerest thou the high priest so? Jesus answered him, If I have spoken evil, bear witness of the evil: but if well, why smitest thou me?"), and Matt. 27:46 ("Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying,...my God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?"), Jesus not only opened his mouth when oppressed but was struck in the process. He even cried for help.


6-for the transgression of my people he was stricken.

we have two choices here,
1-Isaiah means by the servant a collective noun (the righteous remnant of israel) whom according to him ,for the transgression of Israel was stricken.

If the writer of isaiah meant that,then we have no prophecy here,we have a description of things that just has happened then.

we have no objection to his description of How they oppressed, suffered opened not their mouths,smitten etc

but If he claims that by such suffering they paid back the sins of other Israeli, there we should stop him ,and teach him some verses shows that every person should only be punished for those sins which he commits, not those of others.

Ezekiel 18:20
"The soul that sinneth, it shall die. The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him."

Jer. 31:29-30 "
In those days they shall say no more, The fathers have eaten a sour grape, and the children's teeth are set on edge. But every one shall die for his own iniquity: every man that eateth the sour grape, his teeth shall be set on edge."


2- or he means a future servant will be punished for sins of others.

if that is true then we have absured Prophetic language ....

How on earth ,one could verify such prediction?

one could apply the description to a huge list of famous religious figures who suffered and been killed,and assert without proofs that they suffered due to the sins of people..

such as imagine a religious French writer ,predicted once,that some day in the future that a religious french figure will suffer and die due to the sins of French people.....

He used absured style in writing,ignoring the fact that there will be an army of future religious,pious french figures will fulfill it ....

Thomas Paine highlighted the problem well,

Isaiah, or at least the writer of the book that bears his name, employs the whole of this chapter, Iiii., in lamenting the sufferings of some deceased persons, of whom he speaks very pathetically. It is a monody on the death of a friend; but he mentions not the name of the person, nor gives any circumstance of him by which he can be personally known; and it is this silence, which is evidence of nothing, that Matthew has laid hold of, to put the name of Christ to it; as if the chiefs of the Jews, whose sorrows were then great, and the times they lived in big with danger, were never thinking about their own affairs, nor the fate of their own friends, but were continually running a Wild-Goose chase into futurity.

To make a monody into a prophecy is an absurdity. The characters and circumstances of men, even in the different ages of the world, are so much alike, that what is said of one may with propriety be said of many; but this fitness does not make the passage into a prophecy; and none but an impostor, or a bigot, would call it so.

Isaiah, in deploring the hard fate and loss of his friend, mentions nothing of him but what the human lot of man is subject to. All the cases he states of him, his persecutions, his imprisonment, his patience in suffering, and his perseverance in principle, are all within the line of nature; they belong exclusively to none, and may with justness be said of many. But if Jesus Christ was the person the church represents him to be, that which would exclusively apply to him must be something that could not apply to any other person; something beyond the line of nature, something beyond the lot of mortal man; and there are no such expressions in this chapter, nor any other chapter in the Old Testament.

It is no exclusive description to say of a person, as is said of the person Isaiah is lamenting in this chapter, He was oppressed and he was afflicted, yet he opened not his mouth; he is brought as a Lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before his shearers is dumb, so he openeth not his mouth. This may be said of thousands of persons, who have suffered oppressions and unjust death with patience, silence, and perfect resignation.
Grotius, whom the Bishop [of Llandaff] esteems a most learned man, and who certainly was so, supposes that the person of whom Isaiah is speaking, is Jeremiah. Grotius is led into this opinion from the agreement there is between the description given by Isaiah and the case of Jeremiah, as stated in the book that bears his name. If Jeremiah was an innocent man, and not a traitor in the interest of Nebuchadnezar when Jerusalem was besieged, his case was hard; he was accused by his countrymen, was persecuted, oppressed, and imprisoned, and he says of himself, (see Jer. xi. 19,) "But as for me, I was like a lamb or an ox that is brought to the slaughter."(Thomas Paine-examination of the prophecies)


"Isaiah is, upon the whole, a wild, disorderly writer, preserving in general no clear chain of perception in the arrangement of his ideas, and consequently producing no defined conclusions from them. It is the wildness of his style, the confusion of his ideas, and the ranting metaphors he employs, that have afforded so many opportunities to priestcraft in some cases, and to superstition in others, to impose those defects upon the world as prophecies of Jesus Christ. Finding no direct meaning in them, and not knowing what to make of them, and supposing at the same time they were intended to have a meaning, they supplied the defect by inventing a meaning of their own, and called it his (Isaiah's--ED.)." The Life and Works of Paine, Vol. 9, p. 229-30


7-he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days 53:10

that fits perfectly with the (the righteous remnant of israel) interpretation...by no means could be applied to Jesus.
 
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This thread isn't about the Qur'an, but do you not realize that one could speak of the Qur'an in the same terms. No one else was present when Jibrael was supposed to have given the Qur'an to Muhammad (pbuh). We don't know that Muhammad got it right, heck we don't even have any outside testimony to Muhammad having even heard an angel speaking to him other than Muhammad himself. .

But we have

1-the producer of the text claimed himself to be inspired,and asserted he got it from God directly.

2-It has been verfied by first muslims that He(Mohamed pbuh) proved his prophethood,inspiration ,by concrete proofs (miracles).

3-It has proven to us ,those who never seen,listened to him ,that he is a true prophet by the miracelous work he left for the future generation (The Quran) which proved to be both Inerrant and Miracelous as well.

If proven to me that the Quran is errant,or not miracelous ,I would treat the book the same treatment I had with the Bible.
 
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But we have

1-the producer of the text claimed himself to be inspired,and asserted he got it from God directly.
I said that Muhammad (pbuh) made the claim. But that is a claim, not proof.

2-It has been verfied by first muslims that He(Mohamed pbuh) proved his prophethood,inspiration ,by concrete proofs (miracles).
This is NOT the same as saying that they heard and understood the message give the Muhammad.

3-It has proven to us ,those who never seen,listened to him ,that he is a true prophet by the miracelous work he left for the future generation (The Quran) which proved to be both Inerrant and Miracelous as well.
If they never saw Muhammad (pbuh) then that is just saying about them what you have about the Bible, that they can't even testify that Muhammad existed any more than others can testify that Jesus did.

If proven to me that the Quran is errant,or not miracelous ,I would treat the book the same treatment I had with the Bible.
I didn't say that the Qur'an was in error either. I said that all we have for testimony that Muhammed received a message of God from Jibrael is Muhammed's word for it. You take him at his word. I trust Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, Paul, Peter, and James.
 
May Allah yeghethik, yebarek feeky,yenawar tarikek,yerzokik be hosn elsohbah men el saleheen methlek, we yazeedek elm wa nor wa hoda.

بسم الله الرحمن الرحيم يا مَنْ تُحَلُّ بِهِ عُقَدُ المكارة، وَيا مَنْ يُفْثَأُ بِهِ حَدُّ الشَّدائِدِ .. وَيا مَنْ يُلْتَمَسُ مِنْهُ الَمخْرَجُ اِلى رَوْحِ الْفَرَجِ، ذَلَّتْ لِقُدْرَتِكَ الصِّعابُ، وَتَسَبَّبَتْ بِلُطْفِكَ الأسباب، وَجَرى بِقُدْرَتِكَ الْقَضاءُ، وَمَضَتْ عَلى إرادتك الأشياء، فَهِيَ بِمَشِيَّتِكَ دُونَ قَوْلِكَ مُؤْتَمِرَةٌ، وَبِإِرادَتِكَ دُونَ نَهْيِكَ مُنْزَجِرَةٌ .. اَنْتَ الْمَدْعُوُّ لِلْمُهِمّاتِ، واَنْتَ الْمَفْزَعُ في المُلِمّاتِ، لا يَنْدَفِعُ مِنْها اِلاّ ما دَفَعْتَ، وَلا يَنْكَشِفُ مِنْها اِلاّ ما كَشَفْتَ، وَقَدْ نَزَلَ بي يا رَبِّ ما قَدْ تَكأَّدَني ثِقْلُهُ، وَاَلَمَّ بي ما قَدْ بَهَظَني حَمْلُهُ، وَبِقُدْرَتِكَ أوردته عَلَيَّ، وَبِسُلْطانِكَ وَجَّهْتَهُ اِلَيَّ، فَلا مُصْدِرَ لِما اَوْرَدْتَ، وَلا صارِفَ لِما وَجَّهْتَ، وَلا فاتِحَ لِما أغلقت، وَلا مُغْلِقَ لِما فَتَحْتَ، وَلا مُيَسِّرَ لِما عَسَّرْتَ، وَلا ناصِرَ لِمَنْ خَذَلْتَ .. فَصَلِّ عَلى مُحَمَّد وآلِهِ، وَاْفْتَحْ لي يا رَبِّ بابَ الْفَرَجِ بِطَولِكَ، وَاكْسِرْ عَنّي سُلْطانَ الْهَمِّ بِحَوْلِكَ، وَاَنِلْني حُسْنَ النَّظَرِ فيـما شَكَوْتُ، وَاَذِقْني حَلاوَةَ الصُّنْعِ فيـما سَاَلْتُ ، وَهَبْ لي مِنْ لَدُنْكَ رَحْمةً وَفَرجاً هَنيئاً، وَاجْعَلْ لي مِنْ عِنْدِكَ مَخْرَجاً وَحِيّاً ( اى سريعا )، وَلا تَشْغَلْني بِالاِْهتِمامِ عَنْ تَعاهُدِ فُرُوضِكَ، وَاسْتِعْمالِ سُنَّتِكَ فَقَدْ ضِقْتُ لِما نَزَلَ بي يا رَبِّ ذَرْعاً، وامْتَلأتُ بِحَمْلِ ما حَدَثَ عَليَّ هَمّاً، واَنْتَ الْقادِرُ عَلى كَشْفِ ما مُنيتُ بِهِ، وَدَفْعِ ما وَقَعْتُ فيهِ، فاَفْعَلْ بي ذلِكَ وَاِنْ لَمْ اَسْتَوْجِبْهُ مِنْكَ.. يا ذَا الْعَرْشِ الْعَظيمِ، وَذَا الْمَنِّ الْكَريمِ، فَاَنْتَ قادِرٌ يا اَرْحَمَ الرّاحِمينَ، آمينَ رَبَّ الْعالَمينَ .

:sl:
wow shokran akhi, that warmed my heart... was exactly what I was looking for before I left today under the du3a section.. no matter better that I have read it now than never, and what could be better than du3a alakh le'akheeh ow ukhtih ilmoslema?.. I can't think of anything :sunny:
Jazaka Allah khyran shokran li'du3a'ak wa'eyakoum ad3fao ameen ameen ameen..
:w:
 
I said that Muhammad (pbuh) made the claim. But that is a claim, not proof.

I didn't say that the Qur'an was in error either. I said that all we have for testimony that Muhammed received a message of God from Jibrael is Muhammed's word for it. You take him at his word. I trust Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, Paul, Peter, and James.


You just can't get with it ,seeker......

as a matter of fact you try to compare cheese with chalk..

you said:

(Muhammed received a message of God from Jibrael is Muhammed's word for it. You take him at his word.)

Did you read my post well ?

The burden of proofs lies on him who alledges.....

Mohamed(pbuh) alledged that he was inspired,and showed proofs for his claims.....some has been experienced by the first muslims (miracles,fulfilled prophecies) and left the ultimate proof for his inspiration to the future generation(The inerrant,miracelous Quran)....



Paul,and those alike alledged that they were inspired,but what they left for us to support such claims:

Errant work (contradictions,false prophecies,OT misquotations etc)......

That is why I buy the Quran,not the NT...
 
You just can't get with it ,seeker......

as a matter of fact you try to compare cheese with chalk..

you said:

(Muhammed received a message of God from Jibrael is Muhammed's word for it. You take him at his word.)

Did you read my post well ?

The burden of proofs lies on him who alledges.....

Mohamed(pbuh) alledged that he was inspired,and showed proofs for his claims.....some has been experienced by the first muslims (miracles,fulfilled prophecies) and left the ultimate proof for his inspiration to the future generation(The inerrant,miracelous Quran)....



Paul,and those alike alledged that they were inspired,but what they left for us to support such claims:

Errant work (contradictions,false prophecies,OT misquotations etc)......

That is why I buy the Quran,not the NT...

Grace Seeker has made this point before, but a piece of literature being "inerrant" has absolutely nothing to do with the "truth" of the text in question. The point is that Muhammed stated he recieved a divinely inspired message from Gabriel. There is nothing more to base that claim on other than the word of Muhammed. So you are taking Muhammed at his word on the basis of faith. One can state that the Qu'ran is "inerrant, miraculous, etc", but those are opinions or beliefs, not concrete facts. I'm sure you disagree of course.

I trust the disciples of Christ in this matter. People who knew they were facing death and torture for promoting Christ's Message. Personally, I think it takes more faith to believe that Paul was involved in a massive conspiracy to alter the teachings of Christ in order to do....some unnamed goal. On the topic of which holy book is "inerrant"....well, I'm not sure that "proves" much of anything in regards to the truth.
 
So you are taking Muhammed at his word on the basis of faith. One can state that the Qu'ran is " miraculous, etc", but those are opinions or beliefs, not concrete facts. .


aside from you,Seeker there are those who are taking Muhammed at his word on the basis of proofs not faith :

Professor Keith L. Moore
"It has been a great pleasure for me to help clarify statements in the Qur'an about human development. It is clear to me that these statements must have come to Muhammad from God, or Allah, because most of this knowledge was not discovered until many centuries later. This proves to me that Muhammad must have been a messenger of God, or Allah."

http://www.islamic-awareness.org/Quran/Science/scientists.html


What the NT has to offer ,for well-educated men,who seek proofs to praise it for?!!
some preaching?,stories?,good news?
one could find the same in the Quran,Hindu scriptures,Budha's scripture etc......
but one can never find as similar as The Quranic scientific miracles and its fulfilled prophecies....
 
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aside from you,Seeker there are those who are taking Muhammed at his word on the basis of proofs not faith :

Professor Keith L. Moore
"It has been a great pleasure for me to help clarify statements in the Qur'an about human development. It is clear to me that these statements must have come to Muhammad from God, or Allah, because most of this knowledge was not discovered until many centuries later. This proves to me that Muhammad must have been a messenger of God, or Allah."

http://www.islamic-awareness.org/Quran/Science/scientists.html


What the NT has to offer ,for well-educated men,who seek proofs to praise it for?!!
some preaching?,stories?,good news?
one could find the same in the Quran,Hindu scriptures,Budha's scripture etc......
but one can never find as similar as The Quranic scientific miracles and its fulfilled prophecies....


I'm sure there is already a thread on "proofs that the Qur'an is true", but I have not visited it. Perhaps I'll stop in and read what is being offered as proof. There are many who think that the Bible has been proven by miracles as well, but as I haven't studied the "proofs" of the Qur'an I can't say that they are comparable in nature.
 
I'm sure there is already a thread on "proofs that the Qur'an is true", but I have not visited it. Perhaps I'll stop in and read what is being offered as proof. There are many who think that the Bible has been proven by miracles as well, but as I haven't studied the "proofs" of the Qur'an I can't say that they are comparable in nature.

Great !!

and will be a good idea ..if you start a thread ,you may call it

(difficulties within the claim that the Quran is miraculous )

and you will find me there soon.....

peace
 
aside from you,Seeker there are those who are taking Muhammed at his word on the basis of proofs not faith :

Professor Keith L. Moore
"It has been a great pleasure for me to help clarify statements in the Qur'an about human development. It is clear to me that these statements must have come to Muhammad from God, or Allah, because most of this knowledge was not discovered until many centuries later. This proves to me that Muhammad must have been a messenger of God, or Allah."

http://www.islamic-awareness.org/Quran/Science/scientists.html


What the NT has to offer ,for well-educated men,who seek proofs to praise it for?!!
some preaching?,stories?,good news?
one could find the same in the Quran,Hindu scriptures,Budha's scripture etc......
but one can never find as similar as The Quranic scientific miracles and its fulfilled prophecies....

Wow!!! He helped clarify, and on that basis satisfies himself that the Koran is from God or Allah!! That sure is proof. You need a Western scholar to tell you that ?

So I assume that the basis of your argument is scientific miracles and prophecies. If we assume that to be the basis of the argument , I would really like to hear some proof of these miracles and also the prophecies.

Why did Uthmann have to compile a single Koran from various sources and destroy the rest? Because they werer corrupted ?

But, I must confirm that that would not really answer the question about the supposed "corruption" of the Bible. Then it would be interesting to find such proof , other than mere speculation. I can prove the Koran wrong and the Bible right by independant (and also some really anti-Christian) sources.
 
Why did Uthmann have to compile a single Koran from various sources and destroy the rest? Because they werer corrupted ?

No, because there were unauthorised copies made by individuals for personal use and so may have contained mistakes since they were based only on the memory of one person, rather than the memories of ALL the top ranking companions of the time and also on the documents that were written in the presence of the Prophet Muhammad (pbuh), which is roughly how Uthman complied the Quran. :rollseyes

In view of historical evidence, even outside Christianity, that Jesus was killed, proves the Koran incorrect (sorry, the Bible correct) on at least this one occasion. Please note that the source mentioned is not the only one available.

LOL obviously! Muslims and Christians are the only one who believe their was something different about Jesus. Obviously all non-Christians/Muslims they believe he is dead, since they believe he was an ordinary man!

The Quran says that it was made to appear to the killers they killed Jesus, which means that people obviously thought that Jesus was dead, so even if there was historical evidence to show that Jesus was killed, it is only because the people actually thought he was killed even though he was not.

Anyway, what historical evidence is there other than the Bible?
 
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No, because there were unauthorised copies made by individuals for personal use and so may have contained mistakes since they were based only on the memory of one person, rather than the memories of ALL the top ranking companions of the time and also on the documents that were written in the presence of the Prophet Muhammad (pbuh), which is roughly how Uthman complied the Quran. :rollseyes


Malaikah, given that Muslims have destroyed unauthorized copies of their own scriptures, why does the Christian Church having done the same become something that Muslims cite as "evidence" of the Bible's corruption? I don't see how a person could be so accepting of one but not the other.
 
No, because there were unauthorised copies made by individuals for personal use and so may have contained mistakes since they were based only on the memory of one person, rather than the memories of ALL the top ranking companions of the time and also on the documents that were written in the presence of the Prophet Muhammad (pbuh), which is roughly how Uthman complied the Quran. :rollseyes

So you measn that there were variances and some were destroyed to make sure you get one which should be seen as the "one"? I see

LOL obviously! Muslims and Christians are the only one who believe their was something different about Jesus. Obviously all non-Christians/Muslims they believe he is dead, since they believe he was an ordinary man!
I am not claiming they conceded to Him being God. Just the fact that He was killed. That is recorded in normal history books from the greatest historian of the time, but also by his greatest oppposition (The Pharisees) There was actually a difference of opinion how long the earth was dark when He was crucified.
The Quran says that it was made to appear to the killers they killed Jesus, which means that people obviously thought that Jesus was dead, so even if there was historical evidence to show that Jesus was killed, it is only because the people actually thought he was killed even though he was not.
And you really believe that? The Pharisees wanted him dead and they would definitely make sure. Mohammad lived a few hundred years after Jesus and he was not present was he? Even the circumstancial evidence is not in your favour, apart from the facts recorded in history.
Anyway, what historical evidence is there other than the Bible?
Refer, Tacitus is arguably the greatest of Roman historians, would be one source. There are others.
Refer, Tacitus is arguably the greatest of Roman historians, would be one source. There are others[/COLOR
 
No, because there were unauthorised copies made by individuals for personal use and so may have contained mistakes since they were based only on the memory of one person, rather than the memories of ALL the top ranking companions of the time and also on the documents that were written in the presence of the Prophet Muhammad (pbuh), which is roughly how Uthman complied the Quran. :rollseyes



LOL obviously! Muslims and Christians are the only one who believe their was something different about Jesus. Obviously all non-Christians/Muslims they believe he is dead, since they believe he was an ordinary man!

The Quran says that it was made to appear to the killers they killed Jesus, which means that people obviously thought that Jesus was dead, so even if there was historical evidence to show that Jesus was killed, it is only because the people actually thought he was killed even though he was not.

Anyway, what historical evidence is there other than the Bible?

Malaikah, given that Muslims have destroyed unauthorized copies of their own scriptures, why does the Christian Church having done the same become something that Muslims cite as "evidence" of the Bible's corruption? I don't see how a person could be so accepting of one but not the other.
I do not think that Christians destroyed evidence of previous writings - hence the Dead sea scrolls verifies accuracy of accepted Bible. That they chose not to include some "claimed" gospels is another matter altogether.:)
 
Ok, mr back to faith - I see you quote Keith Moore. Here is questions for you..

1. Why did he never convert to islam?
2. Have you spoken to him since?
3. Why was there a transaction from the saudi government found in his bank records?

Please answer those questions, and we will see the truth.

The Quran says that it was made to appear to the killers they killed Jesus, which means that people obviously thought that Jesus was dead, so even if there was historical evidence to show that Jesus was killed, it is only because the people actually thought he was killed even though he was not.
Ok I am sorry to be mean.. But does that mean that "allah" LIED to people?

Wow.
 
Nope, there was no lying, it was a punishment to the Jews/Romans who was against Isa:RA: at the time.

How did it become widespread? It was due to some ignorant people - aswell as alot of bad mistranslation, not because God deceived the people, people deceived people.
 
Nope, there was no lying, it was a punishment to the Jews/Romans who was against Isa:RA: at the time.

How did it become widespread? It was due to some ignorant people - aswell as alot of bad mistranslation, not because God deceived the people, people deceived people.

Please explain as it not quite clear to me how it could be punishment. Also translation ?
 
Malaikah, given that Muslims have destroyed unauthorized copies of their own scriptures, why does the Christian Church having done the same become something that Muslims cite as "evidence" of the Bible's corruption? I don't see how a person could be so accepting of one but not the other.

Well I don't know much about the history of the bible, so I can't say, however the significant difference is that the Quran was actually something delivered to us by Muhammad pbuh whereas the bible was not delivered by Jesus as such... so it is really a major difference.

Also keep in mind that it doesn't even matter if the Christian bible is unchanged or not, because it was never authoritative in the first place. The Holy Book given to Jesus, which is mentioned in the Quran is NOT the same as that the Christians call the Bible today.

So you measn that there were variances and some were destroyed to make sure you get one which should be seen as the "one"? I see

No, not which should be seen as the one, which WAS the one. The other copies (not some of them, ALL of them) were not destroyed because they contained errors- rather they were destroyed in case they contained errors. Big difference.

Also another reason they needed to be destroyed, was that since they were created for personal use, the authors may have added their own personal notes which others might have mistaken to be part of the text of the Quran, and also because they might not have written it down in the correct order.

The variance only existed because of the confusion of some individuals here and there. Don't forget that the entire Quran was memorised by hundreds of the companions of the messenger, that very strict conditions were placed when the Quran was complied into one book and that when the final product was produced they ALL agreed that this was correct and that it was free from any defect.
 
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