Things in Islam I am curious about...

For instance, the original call to prayer was given by a man using his voice. And today it can be amplified. Can it be recorded? Can it be given by a woman? I don't recall seeing any "doctrine" stating any of the above, either pro or con. (There might be, I just haven't seen them.) How does one discern what is doctrine and what is habit?

Regarding the giving of adhaan, which is the call to prayer, by a woman (to a mixed gender congregation), that is not permissible. All scholars are unanimously agreed on this.

Sister Muslim Woman is correct in what she has said as well.

For the adhaan, one beautifies one's voice, and women are forbidden to do that within earshot of men:

"....If you fear Allah , then do not be soft in speech [to men], lest he in whose heart is disease should covet, but speak with appropriate speech." (Qur'an, 33:32)

Also, in the prayer, if a woman notices anything amiss in the prayer, or a mistake in the recitation, she is not to use her voice to draw the imams attention to it, but to clap.

Bukhaari (684) and Muslim (421) narrated from Sahl ibn Sa’d al-Saa’idi (may Allaah be pleased with him) that the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever notices anything amiss during the prayer, let him say tasbeeh, for if he does so it will be noticed; and clapping is only for women.”

There may be other proofs too, but to Muslims it is clear women cannot give the adhaan if the congregation is mixed gender, and also they cannot give the adhaan within earshot of men.

We are allowed to make use of technology that is beneficial, so amplifying helps the adhaan reach places it otherwise wouldn't be heard.

Playing a recording, however will not suffice: a man must be present physically giving the adhaan;

Bukhaari (604) and Muslim (377) narrated that Ibn ‘Umar (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: When the Muslims came to Madeenah, they used to gather and wait for the prayer, and there was no call for the prayer. One day they spoke about that and some of them said, “Let us use a bell like the bell of the Christians.” Others said, “No, let us use a horn like the horn of the Jews.” ‘Umar said, “Why don’t you send a man to give the call to prayer?” The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said, “O Bilaal, get up and call the people to prayer.”

A man must physically give the adhaan. In the same way that us playing a pre-recorded recording of ourselves five times a day would not suffice for having performed the five daily prayers, without us physically performig the prayers, the same applies here.

If you look at the way the prayer was performed at the time of the prophet, a man physically gave the adhaan. If you play a recording, you take away the man. If a woman gives the adhaan, you take away the man. Both these scenarios are in direct contravention of the sunnah. Using technology to amplify the adhaan however, is not. Bilal (may Allah be pleased with him) himself used to stand on the top of the Ka'bah to enable his voice to reach as far as possible.

All the original conditions are kept. No doctrine or matter of religion is being changed, and no new matter of religion is being introduced. It is simply a tool to enable the adhaan to reach the masses.

So anything that introduces something new as a matter of religion, that was not done at the time of the Prophet (peace be upon him) would be a bid'ah if done.

Peace.
 
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Is this the process for everything that is considered? How exhausting it must be. No wonder you need a whole system of jurisprudence to decide what is and is not haraam or bidah.

I want to ask more questions of this, but fear that they might come across as simply being contentious.
 
Look, it's very simple. It doesn't even need a flowchart. Here are the options

1. Scripture tells us to do something.
2. Scripture tells us not to do something.
3. Scripture does not say anything on the matter.

Innovation is either pretending that anything from category #3 is tantamount to a #1 or #2 in terms of our religion, or coming up with new "interpretations" of something from category #1 or #2 to nullify it. In other words, adding to the words of God.
 
Salaam/Peace

Which doesn't answer the question. During the time of Prophet Muhammed lots of different groups of people never did it that do today......... Can you help me to understand what that determining factor(s) is (are), please?

there are some guidelines what to do , what not to do. It reminds me of womam Imam. Prophet pbuh never told any woman to lead the mixed Jamaat. but now a day , the so called ' moderate' Mualims are demanding womam Imam . In one case , a convert US lady led the mixed Jamaat.
 
Is this the process for everything that is considered? How exhausting it must be. No wonder you need a whole system of jurisprudence to decide what is and is not haraam or bidah.


Yes, that is why scholars in Islam spend so many years studying qur'an and hadiths sciences to be able to give rulings on Islamic jurisprudence, and that is why they are considered as the heirs of the prophet SAW.

We don't take the words of God SWT and examples by prophet SAW lightly, unlike christians who regard bible and their religion as a smorgasbord buffet where they can pick and choose what they like, according to their whims, desires, and the current trend, and toss the rest out the window.

Back on topic, I think sis. Insaanah gave the best explanation on why women muezzin is not permissible.
 
It is reported in the Sahih of Imam Al-Bukhari and other authentic collections of hadith that the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) and his Companions used to fast on the 10th day of Muharram while they were in Makkah (before the hijrah).

It was a day on which people of Makkah used to change the covering (kiswah) of the Ka`bah. Quraysh also used to fast on this day. (Al-Bukhari, hadith 1489 and 1760)

After the hijrah when the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) came to Madinah, he found that the Jews of Madinah also used to observe this day with fasting. The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) asked them the reason of their fasting on this day. They said, “This is a blessed day. On this day Allah saved the Children of Israel from their enemy (in Egypt) and so Prophet Musa fasted on this day giving thanks to Allah.” The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) said, “We have more claim to Musa than you.” He fasted on that day and commanded Muslims to fast on this day. (Al-Bukhari, hadith 1865)

At the moment, I'm not so curious as to the origins of the Day of Ashura the one part of this reported hadith where Muhammad is reported to have said to a group of Jews: "We have more claim to Musa than you."

Can someone explain what Muhammad (pbuh) meant by that statement?
 
Look, it's very simple. It doesn't even need a flowchart. Here are the options

1. Scripture tells us to do something.
2. Scripture tells us not to do something.
3. Scripture does not say anything on the matter.

Innovation is either pretending that anything from category #3 is tantamount to a #1 or #2 in terms of our religion, or coming up with new "interpretations" of something from category #1 or #2 to nullify it. In other words, adding to the words of God.

Is there ever any concern that even the scholars might end up mistakenly viewing something that is really in category #3 as if it were part of either categories #1 or #2?
 
Salaam/Peace

,,Muhammad is reported to have said to a group of Jews: "We have more claim to Musa than you."

Can someone explain what Muhammad (pbuh) meant by that statement?

a related ans:



Name of Counsellor Yusuf Al-Qaradawi


....All the Prophets are brothers and each has contributed towards the establishment of the truth. Thus, The Muslims are more entitled to follow all the previous prophets more than those who claim adherence to the prophets while they falsified their books and altered their religion. So if the day of `Ashura’ celebrates the ill fate of Pharaoh and the victory of Musa, it is also a victory for the truth; the same truth that was revealed to Muhammad and upheld by him. Since Musa (peace and blessings be upon him) fasted this day as a way of thanksgiving, the Muslims are more entitled to follow him than the Jews.



http://www.islamonline.net/servlet/...nline-English-Ask_Scholar/FatwaE/PrintFatwaE+
 
Ah, so it is a claim that the Jews are misinterpretting Moses and the Muslims are not, thus Muslims have a greater claim on Moses than would the Jews. I assume that Muslims would make the same claim with regard to all persons considered to be prophets of Islam then. Correct?

In essence, it is a claim of exclusivity with regard to the truth.
 
Is there ever any concern that even the scholars might end up mistakenly viewing something that is really in category #3 as if it were part of either categories #1 or #2?

I would answer if I thought it would do any good, but daring to say one word against any scholar of Islam is a surefire means of getting people to gang up on you and yell at you.
 
I would answer if I thought it would do any good, but daring to say one word against any scholar of Islam is a surefire means of getting people to gang up on you and yell at you.


How does one get recognized as a scholar of Islam? Is there a certain degree or certification process? From what I can see, it seems to be more about general consensus than anything else.
 
How does one get recognized as a scholar of Islam? Is there a certain degree or certification process? From what I can see, it seems to be more about general consensus than anything else.

I think it depends on where you study, as with anything else. But basically you get it the same way you become any kind of academic: by mindlessly absorbing the (frequently false or illogical) biases taught along with your subject like it's a natural part of it, learning too much in your training of inconsequential stuff you don't need to know and not enough of what you do need to know, B.S.'ing your way through tests and essays knowing that the psychology and prejudices of the teacher or curriculum-writer are the real main factor in how you're graded instead of the facts, and then sitting back and enjoying the godlike intellectual status you've been given by virtue of having a certain piece of paper and the fact that most people (especially when it comes to Islam!) never question someone of high learning for any reason whatsoever, even if they try to argue that the sky is brown. Like I said, it's the same with any kind of academia, I think.
 
Is there ever any concern that even the scholars might end up mistakenly viewing something that is really in category #3 as if it were part of either categories #1 or #2?

We're allowed to use extensions of rulings and implications (also known as qiyas and ijma) as well as abiding by the norms of present day society (aka urf) provided of course they fit with Islamic principles. So we can have the call to prayer being recited through speakers for example or drive cars/motor bikes (instead of using camels or horses). But pimping is a strict no-no.

However, there is a difference between an extension of a rule and an invention of a rule. The latter is impermissable, because that is bid'ah (innovation). This being said, we are usually told specifically and clearly what is forbidden (rape, murder and so on). So the boundaries are clearly set out, but at the same time there is room for development.

As for scholars, no they are not infalible. But that doesn't mean we should discredit them entirely just because they made one mistake. It should act as a reminder that quite simply scholars are indeed human.
 
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How does one get recognized as a scholar of Islam? Is there a certain degree or certification process? From what I can see, it seems to be more about general consensus than anything else.

While there are university courses that can lead to the equivalent of a Ph.D in things like Qur'anic studies, Islamic Jurisprudence and The Science of ahadith and graduates with such degrees are accepted as scholars there also are scholars accepted as being so on the basis of general consensus. These are usually men/women who have demonstrated exceptional knowledge of Islam.

However, we are not to accept the words of any scholar as being fact until we our selves have verified the truth through other sources also. All living scholars are human and as such have the ability to err.
 
I think it depends on where you study, as with anything else. But basically you get it the same way you become any kind of academic: by mindlessly absorbing the (frequently false or illogical) biases taught along with your subject like it's a natural part of it, learning too much in your training of inconsequential stuff you don't need to know and not enough of what you do need to know, B.S.'ing your way through tests and essays knowing that the psychology and prejudices of the teacher or curriculum-writer are the real main factor in how you're graded instead of the facts, and then sitting back and enjoying the godlike intellectual status you've been given by virtue of having a certain piece of paper and the fact that most people (especially when it comes to Islam!) never question someone of high learning for any reason whatsoever, even if they try to argue that the sky is brown. Like I said, it's the same with any kind of academia, I think.

Thats quite a statement, and you know this because.....?

do you hold these views for all scholars of islam?
 
You'll have to pardon me, I have a great suspicion of academics in general. It all seems to work the same way, from what I can tell. Part of it isn't really the academics themselves but the way most people refuse on general principles to question them. The Islamic community is the worst group in the world at this, typically granting prophet-like status to people just for being unusually educated. Being an heir to the prophets does not literally make you as trustworthy as they were anymore than being the inheritor of an estate when its previous owner dies means that you're necessarily going to use the property as well as they did.
 
I'm curious about something in Islam. Is it true once you become a muslim, you can't leave it? No other faith that I know of has that sort of strict rule. If true.
 
I'm curious about something in Islam. Is it true once you become a muslim, you can't leave it? No other faith that I know of has that sort of strict rule. If true.


short answer: not true.

case in point: me.

I was born muslim, but in my college years and the following years, I strayed and was heavily influenced by western nothingness lifestyle and life outlook and I truly neglected to learn about Islam and totally left everything required as a muslim and I became an agnostic.
To cut the story short, Alhamdulillaah Allah has guided me back to the straight path, and I came back to Islam and the more I learned about Islam the more I am convinced that Islam is the truth. May Allah SWT keep guiding me and my family and all muslims to the straight path. Amiin.

Millions of muslims have left Islam for all sorts of reasons (money, material world, neglect, etc), but NONE because they have deeper understandings of Islam.
Contrast that to other religions, especially christianity/catholics/what-have-you where many many christians left their belief because they are disillusioned with the worship of man as god.
Just go to the new Muslim sections in this forums and you will find many stories of ex nuns, priests, pastors, etc who reverted to Islam.
 
I'm curious about something in Islam. Is it true once you become a muslim, you can't leave it? No other faith that I know of has that sort of strict rule. If true.

Well christianity used to have apostacy laws, but they've been abandoned.

You can read more here http://www.islamicboard.com/clarifications-about-islam/134298175-punishment-apostasy-islam.html

http://www.islamicboard.com/discover-islam/49146-death-penalty-apostasy-islam.html

Bear in mind the punishment for apostacy can only be carried out by an islamic state and thats if you go about anouncing it to everyone, theres very few places on earth where you will find such laws in place
 

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