Female honey bee? Arabic word?

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the point was that the EE means that God is talking to a femanine. Get the point? seems to me your admitting it, EE makes it femanine.

Nope, just correcting the spelling mistakes in your post. No admitting, no comment.
 
according to you the presented evidence is "yaa makes it plural" doesn't mean God is commanding a female bee. Dont make any sense, where is the evidence for that? that non-intelligent bees is a different grammer, with singluar femanine forms.

how do you say her book in arabic, it is kitabuha, the book is non intelligent, so does that become plural?

We have already gone over this rule repeatedly. Either you understand it, and are pretending to misunderstand it because you want to trip me up, or you don't understand it and future repetitions will not make a difference.

Are you a lawyer? If you aren't maybe you should be.
 
we are talking about aslukee, faslukee, attakhizee. not Butunha, Like i have mentioned earlier, a command word with a Yaa at the end means the subject is femanine.

Now you claims that that because Butunha could mean "their" thats why the bee is not femanine? thats why the yaa at the end makes it plural? dont make any sense.

The Arabic grammer is derived from the Quran.

Since you and I agree that the verbs are feminine in form, we have no more to debate on that point.

My point is that a command word with a Yaa at the end means the subject is feminine most of the time but not all. Since it is fairly rare that a non-intelligent being is commanded to do something, I could not find examples to support this. You did not accept as evidence the grammatical rules I posted, (though on what basis?).

My final evidence is the use of the grammatical rule I mentioned in translations of the Quran.

Having provided evidence, you have responded to it, not by refuting it, but by simply refusing to understand or accept it. Since it appears to be perfectly clear to me, and I am incapable of making it clearer, we can either drop the debate, due to a language barrier, or you can take the burden of refuting my evidence with evidence of your own.

Again, I suggest you find the grammatical rule which makes it permissible to translate a female singular pronoun as a plural pronoun. I have provided the rule, which you refused to accept, so you must now provide a rule of your own to explain away this abnormality. If you don't, I can make the same argument about your own translation, as you can about mine, except in my case it would involve pronouns. ie, why are you translating a singular feminine pronoun as a plural?
 
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according to you the presented evidence is "yaa makes it plural" doesn't mean God is commanding a female bee. Dont make any sense, where is the evidence for that? that non-intelligent bees is a different grammer, with singluar femanine forms.

The evidence that you refused to consider in the form of posted grammatical rules
 
The Arabic grammer is derived from the Quran.

But the spoken Arabic of now is significantly differant from the spoken Arabic of the time of the Prophet SAWS. Many Arabs find themselves unable to understand the Quran while hearing or reading it, just as many English speakers find it difficult to understand or speak Shakespearean English without study, or a guide explaining the difficult terms.
 
هذه كتبٌ. هي موظوعة على الرف. أخذتها ولكن سقطت من يدي

is very sophmoric and no one in classical arabic writes like that.
You should try
akhth't alkotoub almawdo3a 3la Ar'raf for starters
Do you even in English write, ' these are books, they are placed on a shelf? if it doesn't soound right to you in English, it sounds even more laughable in Arabic.

pls try to understand the difference between the evocative style and the demonstrative articles as addressed in the Quran and all the words used therein.. as this is the last I wish to deal with this subject!
Some of the things you write are true, but you have missed itakhizhi, and asluki is singlular and addressing a female, You simply don't address a male that way, even in plural even a 'non thinking 'IT"~

:w:
 
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هذه كتبٌ. هي موظوعة على الرف. أخذتها ولكن سقطت من يدي

is very sophmoric and no one in classical arabic writes like that.
You should try
akhth't alkotoub almawdo3a 3la Ar'raf wa'laknhoum saqatou min yadi!
Do you even in English write, ' these are books, they are placed on a shelf' if it doesn't soound right to you in English, it sounds even more laughable in Arabic.

Don't change the grammar of the Quran to suit you!
There is no doubt that itakhizhi, is singlular and addressing a female, the same as isluki. You simply don't address a male that way, even in plural~

:w:
We're talking grammar here, not balaghah. I made a series of baby sentences to illustrate a point, not to display my composition skills. And wa'lakinnahoum saqatou min yadi is bad grammar.
 
let me pose this question for you dear sis, you may ask whom ever is teaching you
why in suret an'naml the verse states

حَتَّى إِذَا أَتَوْا عَلَى وَادِي النَّمْلِ قَالَتْ نَمْلَةٌ يَا أَيُّهَا النَّمْلُ ادْخُلُوا مَسَاكِنَكُمْ لَا يَحْطِمَنَّكُمْ سُلَيْمَانُ وَجُنُودُهُ وَهُمْ لَا يَشْعُرُونَ {18}
[Pickthal 27:18] Till, when they reached the Valley of the Ants, an ant exclaimed: O ants! Enter your dwellings lest Solomon and his armies crush you, unperceiving.

why does it read 'ya ayhoha an'naml idkhilou masaknkoum, and not ya aythoua an'naml idkhouli masaknkoum? since they too are a non-thinking object? why are they clearly addressed in the masculine here?

وَأَوْحَى رَبُّكَ إِلَى النَّحْلِ أَنِ اتَّخِذِي مِنَ الْجِبَالِ بُيُوتًا وَمِنَ الشَّجَرِ وَمِمَّا يَعْرِشُونَ {68}
[Pickthal 16:68] And thy Lord inspired the bee, saying: Choose thou habitations in the hills and in the trees and in that which they thatch;

Na7l here is plural as you can see followed by itkhazhi not itakhiz, as is the naml where as in the first verse, naml is also plural, yet addressed with idkhoulou not idkhouli.. as you can see they are both exactly the same yet conjugated to suit the subject!

clearely one is engendered for a reason!
.. I edited the other post to reflect a more correct statement, however , your 'baby' sentences are disjointed still and don't make sense...

I suggest you go to your preceptor or whomever is teaching you and ask why Nahl and Naml are addressed so differently if the rules are the same!

:w:
 
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wa'lakinnahoum saqatou min yadi is bad grammar.

If not so, do you consider this Ayat in the Quran bad grammar? According to what you said, it should be: wa iza al-jibaalo soyyiroo

وإذا الجبال سيرت
 
let me pose this question for you dear sis, you may ask whom ever is teaching you
why in suret an'naml the verse states

حَتَّى إِذَا أَتَوْا عَلَى وَادِي النَّمْلِ قَالَتْ نَمْلَةٌ يَا أَيُّهَا النَّمْلُ ادْخُلُوا مَسَاكِنَكُمْ لَا يَحْطِمَنَّكُمْ سُلَيْمَانُ وَجُنُودُهُ وَهُمْ لَا يَشْعُرُونَ {18}
[Pickthal 27:18] Till, when they reached the Valley of the Ants, an ant exclaimed: O ants! Enter your dwellings lest Solomon and his armies crush you, unperceiving.

why does it read 'ya ayhoha an'naml idkhilou masaknkoum, and not ya aythoua an'naml idkhouli masaknkoum? since they too are a non-thinking object? why are they clearly addressed in the masculine here?

وَأَوْحَى رَبُّكَ إِلَى النَّحْلِ أَنِ اتَّخِذِي مِنَ الْجِبَالِ بُيُوتًا وَمِنَ الشَّجَرِ وَمِمَّا يَعْرِشُونَ {68}
[Pickthal 16:68] And thy Lord inspired the bee, saying: Choose thou habitations in the hills and in the trees and in that which they thatch;

Na7l here is plural as you can see followed by itkhazhi not itakhiz, as is the naml where as in the first verse, naml is also plural, yet addressed with idkhoulou not idkhouli.. as you can see they are both exactly the same yet conjugated to suit the subject!

clearely one is engendered for a reason!
.. I edited the other post to reflect a more correct statement, however , your 'baby' sentences are disjointed still and don't make sense...

I suggest you go to your preceptor or whomever is teaching you and ask why Nahl and Naml are addressed so differently if the rules are the same!

:w:

This rule is Jawazi, as in allowed, though in most cases it is the way I said it. It is allowed to use the plural form or singular feminine, though the plural form is very rare.

Another occurrence of plural form in the Quran for non-intelligents is in Surah Yusuf Ayat 43.

The original rule I posted was:
In Arabic, the plural form of any noun which is not intelligent, (Animals count as non-intelligent. So do bellies:smile:) is usually treated as a singular feminine noun. There are exceptions, even in the Quran but this is the general rule.
 
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let me pose this question for you dear sis, you may ask whom ever is teaching you
why in suret an'naml the verse states

حَتَّى إِذَا أَتَوْا عَلَى وَادِي النَّمْلِ قَالَتْ نَمْلَةٌ يَا أَيُّهَا النَّمْلُ ادْخُلُوا مَسَاكِنَكُمْ لَا يَحْطِمَنَّكُمْ سُلَيْمَانُ وَجُنُودُهُ وَهُمْ لَا يَشْعُرُونَ {18}
[Pickthal 27:18] Till, when they reached the Valley of the Ants, an ant exclaimed: O ants! Enter your dwellings lest Solomon and his armies crush you, unperceiving.

why does it read 'ya ayhoha an'naml idkhilou masaknkoum, and not ya aythoua an'naml idkhouli masaknkoum? since they too are a non-thinking object? why are they clearly addressed in the masculine here?

وَأَوْحَى رَبُّكَ إِلَى النَّحْلِ أَنِ اتَّخِذِي مِنَ الْجِبَالِ بُيُوتًا وَمِنَ الشَّجَرِ وَمِمَّا يَعْرِشُونَ {68}
[Pickthal 16:68] And thy Lord inspired the bee, saying: Choose thou habitations in the hills and in the trees and in that which they thatch;

Na7l here is plural as you can see followed by itkhazhi not itakhiz, as is the naml where as in the first verse, naml is also plural, yet addressed with idkhoulou not idkhouli.. as you can see they are both exactly the same yet conjugated to suit the subject!

clearely one is engendered for a reason!
.. I edited the other post to reflect a more correct statement, however , your 'baby' sentences are disjointed still and don't make sense...

I suggest you go to your preceptor or whomever is teaching you and ask why Nahl and Naml are addressed so differently if the rules are the same!

:w:

ALAHAMDULLILAH, You got him/her there sister! I pray to Allah for you.

So something with Alif and Lam, at the beginning, example النَّحْلِ & النَّمْلِ means its plural? do plurals have masculine or femanine gender, or are they just neutral?
 
She is sending me private messages now that she has started a new thread about fake mathematical miracles. What is her problem?
 
let me pose this question for you dear sis, you may ask whom ever is teaching you
why in suret an'naml the verse states

حَتَّى إِذَا أَتَوْا عَلَى وَادِي النَّمْلِ قَالَتْ نَمْلَةٌ يَا أَيُّهَا النَّمْلُ ادْخُلُوا مَسَاكِنَكُمْ لَا يَحْطِمَنَّكُمْ سُلَيْمَانُ وَجُنُودُهُ وَهُمْ لَا يَشْعُرُونَ {18}
[Pickthal 27:18] Till, when they reached the Valley of the Ants, an ant exclaimed: O ants! Enter your dwellings lest Solomon and his armies crush you, unperceiving.

why does it read 'ya ayhoha an'naml idkhilou masaknkoum, and not ya aythoua an'naml idkhouli masaknkoum? since they too are a non-thinking object? why are they clearly addressed in the masculine here?

وَأَوْحَى رَبُّكَ إِلَى النَّحْلِ أَنِ اتَّخِذِي مِنَ الْجِبَالِ بُيُوتًا وَمِنَ الشَّجَرِ وَمِمَّا يَعْرِشُونَ {68}
[Pickthal 16:68] And thy Lord inspired the bee, saying: Choose thou habitations in the hills and in the trees and in that which they thatch;

Na7l here is plural as you can see followed by itkhazhi not itakhiz, as is the naml where as in the first verse, naml is also plural, yet addressed with idkhoulou not idkhouli.. as you can see they are both exactly the same yet conjugated to suit the subject!

clearely one is engendered for a reason!
.. I edited the other post to reflect a more correct statement, however , your 'baby' sentences are disjointed still and don't make sense...

I suggest you go to your preceptor or whomever is teaching you and ask why Nahl and Naml are addressed so differently if the rules are the same!

:w:

Please correct me where i go wrong, idkhilou (ادْخُلُوا) means to enter, this refers to male and females, as can be seen in other contexes such as:


يَا أَيُّهَا الَّذِينَ آمَنُواْ ادْخُلُواْ فِي السِّلْمِ كَافَّةً وَلاَ تَتَّبِعُواْ خُطُوَاتِ الشَّيْطَانِ إِنَّهُ لَكُمْ عَدُوٌّ مُّبِينٌ
O ye who believe! Enter into Islam whole-heartedly; and follow not the footsteps of the evil one; for he is to you an avowed enemy. [Al-Baqara, Chapter #2, Verse #208]

but when refering to females, it specifically uses a yaa at the end as seen at:

قِيلَ لَهَا ادْخُلِي الصَّرْحَ فَلَمَّا رَأَتْهُ حَسِبَتْهُ لُجَّةً وَكَشَفَتْ عَن سَاقَيْهَا قَالَ إِنَّهُ صَرْحٌ مُّمَرَّدٌ مِّن قَوَارِيرَ قَالَتْ رَبِّ إِنِّي ظَلَمْتُ نَفْسِي وَأَسْلَمْتُ مَعَ سُلَيْمَانَ لِلَّهِ رَبِّ الْعَالَمِينَ

She was asked to enter ( ادْخُلِي ) the lofty Palace: but when she saw it, she thought it was a lake of water, and she (tucked up her skirts), uncovering her legs. He said: "This is but a palace paved smooth with slabs of glass." She said: "O my Lord! I have indeed wronged my soul: I do (now) submit (in Islam), with Solomon, to the Lord of the Worlds." [An-Naml, Chapter #27, Verse #44]

what does the لُواْ mean?
 
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ALAHAMDULLILAH, You got him/her there sister! I pray to Allah for you.

So something with Alif and Lam, at the beginning, example النَّحْلِ & النَّمْلِ means its plural? do plurals have masculine or femanine gender, or are they just neutral?

plural engenders both, and as you can see in the example clearely, there is no difference between Nahl (bees) and naml (ants) on any grounds, yet you see it clearely addressed in the feminine in one and the mascuiline in the other.. if her rules of grammar are sovereign to all 'mindless living things' then Then Naml would have been addressed the exact same way as the nahl..

Al7mdlilah the Quran is its own vindication, but she is certainly entitled to her opinion..

You have examples from the Quran of the exact similar subjects and you have a non-arabic speaking member's rules on grammar!

:w:
 
plural engenders both, and as you can see in the example clearely, there is no difference between Nahl (bees) and naml (ants) on any grounds, yet you see it clearely addressed in the feminine in one and the mascuiline in the other.. if her rules of grammar are sovereign to all 'mindless living things' then Then Naml would have been addressed the exact same way as the nahl..

Al7mdlilah the Quran is its own vindication, but she is certainly entitled to her opinion..

You have examples from the Quran of the exact similar subjects and you have a non-arabic speaking member's rules on grammar!

:w:


I know her/his.... grammer is totally baseless, this is clearly proven with your example from surah an naml, my question is how something becomes plural, النَّحْلِ & النَّمْلِ , they both have alif and lam, is it this that makes it plural? any other examples, i am trying to learn as much as i can.

you mentioned in surah naml that the ants referred to in masculine, i thougt it was referring to both? when female ant orders the other ants, i thought it orders all ants, not just masculine.
 
no 'Al' equals to 'the' I am sorry I have been neglecting to answer all your posts, I am just really always pressed for time, pls don't think I am ignoring you or that your questions aren't important

naml is plural Namla is singular 'Al'naml' means the ants
Nahl is plural, nahla is singular 'Al'nahal' the bees..
it is called mo3araf be Al..
that is how All of God's names start with 'Al' to distinguish him from any generous, or any kind, by the most generous the most kind..

I hope that was of help insha'Allah?

:w:
 
Because I have already posted her another example from the Quran with the exact same subject matter addressed in the masculine.. at this point, she is entitled to her opinion, I can't force it down her throat even in example form from the same book she is using to assert the opposite..

peace
 

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