the point was that the EE means that God is talking to a femanine. Get the point? seems to me your admitting it, EE makes it femanine.
Nope, just correcting the spelling mistakes in your post. No admitting, no comment.
the point was that the EE means that God is talking to a femanine. Get the point? seems to me your admitting it, EE makes it femanine.
according to you the presented evidence is "yaa makes it plural" doesn't mean God is commanding a female bee. Dont make any sense, where is the evidence for that? that non-intelligent bees is a different grammer, with singluar femanine forms.
how do you say her book in arabic, it is kitabuha, the book is non intelligent, so does that become plural?
we are talking about aslukee, faslukee, attakhizee. not Butunha, Like i have mentioned earlier, a command word with a Yaa at the end means the subject is femanine.
Now you claims that that because Butunha could mean "their" thats why the bee is not femanine? thats why the yaa at the end makes it plural? dont make any sense.
The Arabic grammer is derived from the Quran.
according to you the presented evidence is "yaa makes it plural" doesn't mean God is commanding a female bee. Dont make any sense, where is the evidence for that? that non-intelligent bees is a different grammer, with singluar femanine forms.
The Arabic grammer is derived from the Quran.
We're talking grammar here, not balaghah. I made a series of baby sentences to illustrate a point, not to display my composition skills. And wa'lakinnahoum saqatou min yadi is bad grammar.هذه كتبٌ. هي موظوعة على الرف. أخذتها ولكن سقطت من يدي
is very sophmoric and no one in classical arabic writes like that.
You should try
akhth't alkotoub almawdo3a 3la Ar'raf wa'laknhoum saqatou min yadi!
Do you even in English write, ' these are books, they are placed on a shelf' if it doesn't soound right to you in English, it sounds even more laughable in Arabic.
Don't change the grammar of the Quran to suit you!
There is no doubt that itakhizhi, is singlular and addressing a female, the same as isluki. You simply don't address a male that way, even in plural~
![]()
wa'lakinnahoum saqatou min yadi is bad grammar.
let me pose this question for you dear sis, you may ask whom ever is teaching you
why in suret an'naml the verse states
حَتَّى إِذَا أَتَوْا عَلَى وَادِي النَّمْلِ قَالَتْ نَمْلَةٌ يَا أَيُّهَا النَّمْلُ ادْخُلُوا مَسَاكِنَكُمْ لَا يَحْطِمَنَّكُمْ سُلَيْمَانُ وَجُنُودُهُ وَهُمْ لَا يَشْعُرُونَ {18}
[Pickthal 27:18] Till, when they reached the Valley of the Ants, an ant exclaimed: O ants! Enter your dwellings lest Solomon and his armies crush you, unperceiving.
why does it read 'ya ayhoha an'naml idkhilou masaknkoum, and not ya aythoua an'naml idkhouli masaknkoum? since they too are a non-thinking object? why are they clearly addressed in the masculine here?
وَأَوْحَى رَبُّكَ إِلَى النَّحْلِ أَنِ اتَّخِذِي مِنَ الْجِبَالِ بُيُوتًا وَمِنَ الشَّجَرِ وَمِمَّا يَعْرِشُونَ {68}[Pickthal 16:68] And thy Lord inspired the bee, saying: Choose thou habitations in the hills and in the trees and in that which they thatch;
Na7l here is plural as you can see followed by itkhazhi not itakhiz, as is the naml where as in the first verse, naml is also plural, yet addressed with idkhoulou not idkhouli.. as you can see they are both exactly the same yet conjugated to suit the subject!
clearely one is engendered for a reason!
.. I edited the other post to reflect a more correct statement, however , your 'baby' sentences are disjointed still and don't make sense...
I suggest you go to your preceptor or whomever is teaching you and ask why Nahl and Naml are addressed so differently if the rules are the same!
![]()
In Arabic, the plural form of any noun which is not intelligent, (Animals count as non-intelligent. So do bellies:smileis usually treated as a singular feminine noun. There are exceptions, even in the Quran but this is the general rule.
You simply don't address a male that way, even in plural even a 'non thinking 'IT"~
let me pose this question for you dear sis, you may ask whom ever is teaching you
why in suret an'naml the verse states
حَتَّى إِذَا أَتَوْا عَلَى وَادِي النَّمْلِ قَالَتْ نَمْلَةٌ يَا أَيُّهَا النَّمْلُ ادْخُلُوا مَسَاكِنَكُمْ لَا يَحْطِمَنَّكُمْ سُلَيْمَانُ وَجُنُودُهُ وَهُمْ لَا يَشْعُرُونَ {18}
[Pickthal 27:18] Till, when they reached the Valley of the Ants, an ant exclaimed: O ants! Enter your dwellings lest Solomon and his armies crush you, unperceiving.
why does it read 'ya ayhoha an'naml idkhilou masaknkoum, and not ya aythoua an'naml idkhouli masaknkoum? since they too are a non-thinking object? why are they clearly addressed in the masculine here?
وَأَوْحَى رَبُّكَ إِلَى النَّحْلِ أَنِ اتَّخِذِي مِنَ الْجِبَالِ بُيُوتًا وَمِنَ الشَّجَرِ وَمِمَّا يَعْرِشُونَ {68}[Pickthal 16:68] And thy Lord inspired the bee, saying: Choose thou habitations in the hills and in the trees and in that which they thatch;
Na7l here is plural as you can see followed by itkhazhi not itakhiz, as is the naml where as in the first verse, naml is also plural, yet addressed with idkhoulou not idkhouli.. as you can see they are both exactly the same yet conjugated to suit the subject!
clearely one is engendered for a reason!
.. I edited the other post to reflect a more correct statement, however , your 'baby' sentences are disjointed still and don't make sense...
I suggest you go to your preceptor or whomever is teaching you and ask why Nahl and Naml are addressed so differently if the rules are the same!
![]()
let me pose this question for you dear sis, you may ask whom ever is teaching you
why in suret an'naml the verse states
حَتَّى إِذَا أَتَوْا عَلَى وَادِي النَّمْلِ قَالَتْ نَمْلَةٌ يَا أَيُّهَا النَّمْلُ ادْخُلُوا مَسَاكِنَكُمْ لَا يَحْطِمَنَّكُمْ سُلَيْمَانُ وَجُنُودُهُ وَهُمْ لَا يَشْعُرُونَ {18}
[Pickthal 27:18] Till, when they reached the Valley of the Ants, an ant exclaimed: O ants! Enter your dwellings lest Solomon and his armies crush you, unperceiving.
why does it read 'ya ayhoha an'naml idkhilou masaknkoum, and not ya aythoua an'naml idkhouli masaknkoum? since they too are a non-thinking object? why are they clearly addressed in the masculine here?
وَأَوْحَى رَبُّكَ إِلَى النَّحْلِ أَنِ اتَّخِذِي مِنَ الْجِبَالِ بُيُوتًا وَمِنَ الشَّجَرِ وَمِمَّا يَعْرِشُونَ {68}[Pickthal 16:68] And thy Lord inspired the bee, saying: Choose thou habitations in the hills and in the trees and in that which they thatch;
Na7l here is plural as you can see followed by itkhazhi not itakhiz, as is the naml where as in the first verse, naml is also plural, yet addressed with idkhoulou not idkhouli.. as you can see they are both exactly the same yet conjugated to suit the subject!
clearely one is engendered for a reason!
.. I edited the other post to reflect a more correct statement, however , your 'baby' sentences are disjointed still and don't make sense...
I suggest you go to your preceptor or whomever is teaching you and ask why Nahl and Naml are addressed so differently if the rules are the same!
![]()
ALAHAMDULLILAH, You got him/her there sister! I pray to Allah for you.
So something with Alif and Lam, at the beginning, example النَّحْلِ & النَّمْلِ means its plural? do plurals have masculine or femanine gender, or are they just neutral?
plural engenders both, and as you can see in the example clearely, there is no difference between Nahl (bees) and naml (ants) on any grounds, yet you see it clearely addressed in the feminine in one and the mascuiline in the other.. if her rules of grammar are sovereign to all 'mindless living things' then Then Naml would have been addressed the exact same way as the nahl..
Al7mdlilah the Quran is its own vindication, but she is certainly entitled to her opinion..
You have examples from the Quran of the exact similar subjects and you have a non-arabic speaking member's rules on grammar!
![]()
Follow along with the video below to see how to install our site as a web app on your home screen.
Note: This feature may not be available in some browsers.