Arabic Q & A
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Whatsthepoint
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Does Arabic ommit pronouns?
Can you say "am" instead fo "I am"?
Can you say "am" instead fo "I am"?
1) How would you say, the infinitive verb as part of a sentence, for example:
In English it would be: I like to eat
If the infintve form in Arabic is the past tense, for example, "He ate", then how would it be said as part of a sentence?
2) What is the best way to learn how to read and write, specifically, Arabic?
3) If I learn Modern Standard Arabic, will I still be able to read my Qu'ran which is in classical Arabic?
In English it would be: I like to eat
If the infintve form in Arabic is the past tense, for example, "He ate", then how would it be said as part of a sentence?
2) What is the best way to learn how to read and write, specifically, Arabic?
3) If I learn Modern Standard Arabic, will I still be able to read my Qu'ran which is in classical Arabic?
Greetings,
first of all Arabic has no (Verb to be)
in Arabic you could say
I clever .
you lazy.
we asleep.
they our friends.
you can ommit the pronoun when speaking....
eg,
Did you do you homework?
yes,did it.
in Arabic sometimes the speaker ommit the pronouns and sometimes use it,depends on those whom he,she speaks to and the background they have regarding what he says.
regards
If the infintve form in Arabic is the past tense, for example, "He ate", then how would it be said as part of a sentence?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arabic_grammar#Verb
the best way to learn how to read and write Arabic, is with the help of someone who is a native speaker as me.
If you learn Modern Standard Arabic, you'll be able to read(and understand most of) the Qu'ran which is in classical Arabic
1) How would you say, "It is" in Arabic?
Example sentences:
It's cold today
It is unaccpetable
It is for the sake of Allah
2) What is the Arabic word for "There is/are" ?
Example sentences:
There are three vowels in Arabic
There is a lot of water
I don't know if there is a...
3) What is the Arabic trilateral, or other verb for, "to have"?
She has two rabbits
They have a house
I have two remaiing, left
Example sentences:
It's cold today
It is unaccpetable
It is for the sake of Allah
2) What is the Arabic word for "There is/are" ?
Example sentences:
There are three vowels in Arabic
There is a lot of water
I don't know if there is a...
3) What is the Arabic trilateral, or other verb for, "to have"?
She has two rabbits
They have a house
I have two remaiing, left
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IT IS
can be written
انه
هذا
ذلك
(for masculine)
،انها
هذه
تلك
(for feminin)
in the sentence
It's cold today
it is written without It's
only you can say :
the weather is cold today
الطقس بارد اليوم
or :cold today (if the listener knows what you refer to)
اليوم برد
It is unaccpetable
is
ذلك غير مقبول
It is for the sake of Allah
فى سبيل الله
also
لوجه الله
2) What is the Arabic word for "There is/are" ?[/B]
it is
يوجد
Example sentences:
There are three vowels in Arabic
يوجد ثلاث حروف فى اللغة العربية
I don't know if there is a...
لست ادرى مااذا كان يوجد
3) What is the Arabic trilateral, or other verb for, "to have"?
There is a lot of water
يوجد كثير من الماء
She has two rabbits
عندها ارنبين
They have a house
عندهم بيت
I have two remaiing, left
مازال عندى اثنين
Whatsthepoint
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What is evident from an arabic verb?
For instance, in english "goes" refers to the third person singular.
In some languages a verb can contain information about the person(I, II, III), number(plural, dual, singular..), tense(past, future) etc...
For instance, in english "goes" refers to the third person singular.
In some languages a verb can contain information about the person(I, II, III), number(plural, dual, singular..), tense(past, future) etc...
Whatsthepoint
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I know Arabic's got dual.
Could you translate (phonetically)
thing, 2 things, things
2 things do something.
_______________________________________
Pronouns:
Some languages have distincts pronouns for different nders. There's a difference between we(male), we(female), we (male and female) etc. etc.
Is it the same in arabic?
Could you translate (phonetically)
thing, 2 things, things
2 things do something.
_______________________________________
Pronouns:
Some languages have distincts pronouns for different nders. There's a difference between we(male), we(female), we (male and female) etc. etc.
Is it the same in arabic?
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She has two rabbits
عندها ارنبين
I have two remaiing, left
مازال عندى اثنين
Why are you using genitive case in both of these sentences ??
Would you please explain it ?
Ummu Sufyaan
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as far as i know, for a present tense verb there is usually the letter alif, noon, taa, and yaa, to indicate I, we, she, he, repectively. does that make sense? im not sure the case for other than the present tense verb.
Why are you using genitive case in both of these sentences ??
Would you please explain it ?
The genitive case or possessive case ,in English, is the case that marks a noun as being the possessor of another noun.
the rule is easy with the pronouns ,
just add to the noun letter(s) ,in order to make it possessive case
for example,the word (Book) kitab كتاب
add
my ى
كتابى
(my book)
his ه
كتابه
(his book)
her ها
كتابها
(her book)
your ك
كتابك
(your book)
our نا
كتابنا
(our book)
their هم
كتابهم
(their book)
the rule with nouns is easier
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arabic_grammar#Genitive_construction_.28I.E1.B8.8D.C4.81fa.29
Genitive construction (Iḍāfa)
A noun may be defined more closely by a subsequent noun in the genitive (Iḍāfa, literally "an addition"). The relation is hierarchical; the first term (al-muḍāf) governs the second term (al-muḍāf ilayhi). E. g. baytu raǧulin 'the house of a man', 'a man's house'. The construction as a whole represents a nominal phrase, the state of which is inherited from the state of the second term. The first term must "be in construct state", namely, it cannot carry the definite article nor the tanween. Genitive constructions of multiple terms are possible. In this case, all but the final term take construct state, and all but the first member take genitive case.
This construction is typical for a Semitic language. In many cases the two members become a fixed coined phrase, the iḍāfa being used as the equivalent of nominal composition in some Indo-European languages (which does not exist in Semitic). baytu-ṭ-ṭalabati thus may mean either 'house of the (certain, known) students' or 'the student hostel'.
Now back to the sentence
She has two rabbits
عندها ارنبين
If we define the genitive case or possessive case ,that it marks a noun as being the possessor of another noun, then this style in the sentence not neccesarily possessive case..
for example:
She has two visitors
عندها ضيفين
Does it mean she own the visitors? No
Greetings
That works with Arabic too,there is always evident from the verb and what (person,tense) it refers to....
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arabic_grammar#Verb
Regards
thing (shaiy)
2things (shaiayn)
things (ashiyaa)
2 things do something (shaiayn yafaloona shaiya)
that is right
we is used for (male and female)
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arabic_grammar#Personal_pronouns
The genitive case or possessive case ,in English, is the case that marks a noun as being the possessor of another noun.
the rule is easy with the pronouns ,
just add to the noun letter(s) ,in order to make it possessive case
for example,the word (Book) kitab كتاب
add
my ى
كتابى
(my book)
his ه
كتابه
(his book)
her ها
كتابها
(her book)
your ك
كتابك
(your book)
our نا
كتابنا
(our book)
their هم
كتابهم
(their book)
the rule with nouns is easier
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arabic_grammar#Genitive_construction_.28I.E1.B8.8D.C4.81fa.29
Genitive construction (Iḍāfa)
A noun may be defined more closely by a subsequent noun in the genitive (Iḍāfa, literally "an addition"). The relation is hierarchical; the first term (al-muḍāf) governs the second term (al-muḍāf ilayhi). E. g. baytu raǧulin 'the house of a man', 'a man's house'. The construction as a whole represents a nominal phrase, the state of which is inherited from the state of the second term. The first term must "be in construct state", namely, it cannot carry the definite article nor the tanween. Genitive constructions of multiple terms are possible. In this case, all but the final term take construct state, and all but the first member take genitive case.
This construction is typical for a Semitic language. In many cases the two members become a fixed coined phrase, the iḍāfa being used as the equivalent of nominal composition in some Indo-European languages (which does not exist in Semitic). baytu-ṭ-ṭalabati thus may mean either 'house of the (certain, known) students' or 'the student hostel'.
Now back to the sentence
She has two rabbits
عندها ارنبين
If we define the genitive case or possessive case ,that it marks a noun as being the possessor of another noun, then this style in the sentence not neccesarily possessive case..
for example:
She has two visitors
عندها ضيفين
Does it mean she own the visitors? No
Dear Imam
Again I am not getting the point.
In the sentence :
عندها ضيفين
عندها = predicate (Khabar muqaddam)
ضيفين = subject (Mubtadaa mua'khkhar)
What is the reason putting Mubtadaa in Genitive case instead of nominative case like
عندها ضيفان
As if I say
I have a book
عندي كتابٌ = indi kitaabun not indi kitaabin.
I am sorry I am again asking you because I seem to be confused about it.
Dear Imam
Again I am not getting the point.
In the sentence :
عندها ضيفين
عندها = predicate (Khabar muqaddam)
ضيفين = subject (Mubtadaa mua'khkhar)
What is the reason putting Mubtadaa in Genitive case instead of nominative case like
عندها ضيفان
it.
Dear Asad
It is me who was not getting your point well....excuse me.....
thought you meant by the genitive case ( the possessive case)
the mixing between the spoken and the written language is the reason of the the error I made ...
in other words in the sentences under discussion ,in the spoken language always the Mubtadaa in Genitive case instead of nominative case ,though this is not the rule of the standard Arabic ...
عندها بيتين،
عندها ولدين
etc.....
Thanx Asad for such important note
and it is pleasure for me to find non-Arabs who zealous to learn it as you..
Dear Asad
It is me who was not getting your point well....excuse me.....
thought you meant by the genitive case ( the possessive case)
the mixing between the spoken and the written language is the reason of the the error I made ...
in other words in the sentences under discussion ,in the spoken language always the Mubtadaa in Genitive case instead of nominative case ,though this is not the rule of the standard Arabic ...
عندها بيتين،
عندها ولدين
etc.....
Thanx Asad for such important note
and it is pleasure for me to find non-Arabs who zealous to learn it as you..
Thanks a lot for this clarification.
Honestly I find your posts very informative.May Allah bless you.
Thanks for the answer, Imam. It was much appreciated:sunny:
Just one another question (I hope I'm not asking too many questions), but is Arabic, or at least Modern Standard Arabic, are the sentences and grammatical structure, Subject before verb, like many non-European languages, or Verb before Subject, as in English, French, German e.t.c?
For example:
Subject before Verb would be:
I water drink
Whilst, Subject after Verb would be:
I drink water
.omar_2133
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Thanks for the answer, Imam. It was much appreciated:sunny:
Just one another question (I hope I'm not asking too many questions), but is Arabic, or at least Modern Standard Arabic, are the sentences and grammatical structure, Subject before verb, like many non-European languages, or Verb before Subject, as in English, French, German e.t.c?
For example:
Subject before Verb would be:I water drink
Whilst, Subject after Verb would be:I drink water.
omar_2133
Classical Arabic tends to prefer the word order VSO (verb before subject) rather than SVO (subject before verb). However, the word order is fairly flexible, since words are tagged by case endings.
here the details
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arabic_grammar#Syntax
in the sentence
I drink water
in Arabic it would be the same order,but note that normally the pronoun I (ana) is omitted .
I drink water
though literally translated
انا اشرب الماء
but usually the pronoun (ana) is omitted,so it is
اشرب الماء
Subject pronouns as (ana,howa,heya etc..) are normally omitted except for emphasis or when using a participle as a verb ....
This will be the last question, but are trilateral verbs the only verbs in Arabic? And if not, what are the names for the other types of verbs?
And are trilateral verbs the most common type of verb in Arabic?
I've looked all over the internet, but I couldn't find any inforomation on this, so I thought I might ask an expert on this
.omar_2133