Authority of the Scriptures

[POBook]

Greetings Ansar Al-'Adl,

Thanks again for answering my questions.

Concerning questions 3 and 4:

1. When Muhammad made reference to "the book," did this "book" contain the revelations received?
2. What was Muhammad's understanding of "the book"?

You asked for some specific verses before answering these two questions.

Al-Qur'an, 5.68 (Al-Maeda [The Table, The Table Spread]) says,

Say: "O People of the Book! ye have no ground to stand upon unless ye stand fast by the Law, the Gospel, and all the revelation that has come to you from your Lord." It is the revelation that cometh to thee from thy Lord, that increaseth in most of them their obstinate rebellion and blasphemy. But sorrow thou not over (these) people without Faith.

I'm going to take away the second question but add some other questions here, if that's OK:?

1. My original question: When Muhammad made reference to "the book," did this "book" contain the revelations received?
2. In this verse, I assume Jews and Christians are being referenced?
3. What did Muhammad mean by "no ground to stand upon upon unless ye stand fast by the Law, the Gospel, and all the revelation that has come to you from your Lord"?
4. Who was the People of the Book's "Lord"?
5. If Muhammad encouraged these People of the Book to stand fast by the Law, the Gospel, and the revelation, did Muhammad at his time, not think that this Law, Gospel and revelation was in tact--no corruption?
6. In this verse, Muhammad seems to be encouraging (correct me if I am wrong) the People of the Book to "stand fast" by what it says; to conform their lives to its teaching. In this verse, Muhammad also says, "It is the revelation that cometh to thee from thy Lord, that increaseth in most of them their obstinate rebellion and blasphemy." Just prior to this, Muhammad encouraged People of the Book to stand fast to this revelation. Muhammad confirms that this revelation came to the People of the Book from their Lord. Muhammad then says that this revelation increases the People of the Book's obstinate rebellion and blasphemy. Why would Muhammad encourage people to stand fast to a revelation that increased obstinate rebellion and blasphemy?
7. Last question: "It is the revelation that cometh to thee from thy Lord (People of the Book referenced to in the first person--Muhammad is speaking directly to them), that increaseth in most of them their (People of the Book referenced in the third person)obstinate rebellion and blasphemy." Why would Muhammad suddenly change midway through a sentence from speaking directly to the People of the Book to speaking to other people about the People of the Book?

Again, thanks for your dialogue.

Sincerely,

 

[Ansar Al-'Adl]

My original question: When Muhammad made reference to "the book," did this "book" contain the revelations received?

The only mention of book in the verse you quoted is 'people of the book' which refers to those people having recieved revelation as previously mentioned.

In this verse, I assume Jews and Christians are being referenced?

http://www.islamicboard.com/163703-post13.html
Jews and Christians are from the People of the Book, yes.

What did Muhammad mean by "no ground to stand upon upon unless ye stand fast by the Law, the Gospel, and all the revelation that has come to you from your Lord"?

It meant that everyone should adhere to the revelations once they recieve them. So the Jews deviated when they stopped following the Tawrah and the Christians when they stopped following the Injeel - what is incumbent upon everyone now is to follow the final revelation, the Holy Qur'an.

See also:
http://www.islamicboard.com/139684-post49.html

Who was the People of the Book's "Lord"?

The One God who created everything.

If Muhammad encouraged these People of the Book to stand fast by the Law, the Gospel, and the revelation, did Muhammad at his time, not think that this Law, Gospel and revelation was in tact--no corruption?

The Prophet Muhammad pbuh commands them to establish the Tawra and the Injeel - that which was originally revealed to them - and the only way for them to recognize what is truly from the Tawra and the Injeel amongst the scriptures they possesed, was for them to use the Qur'an as a criterion and follow Prophet Muhammad pbuh. In doing this, they would have established the Tawra and the Injeel.
http://www.understanding-islam.com/related/text.asp?type=question&qid=460&sscatid=133

In this verse, Muhammad seems to be encouraging (correct me if I am wrong) the People of the Book to "stand fast" by what it says; to conform their lives to its teaching.

They are commanded to establish the Tawra and Injeel - see above explanation.

In this verse, Muhammad also says, "It is the revelation that cometh to thee from thy Lord, that increaseth in most of them their obstinate rebellion and blasphemy."

Maybe you didn't notice that the quotation marks ended in the translation. Now God is informing Prophet Muhammad that the revelation given to him (i.e. the Qur'an) increases most of them (i.e. the Jews and Christians) in obstinate rebellion.

The word 'thee' (Ar. ilayka) is singular in the arabic as is the word 'thy Lord' (Ar. rabbika) - hence this sentence is directed at Prophet Muhammad. If it was addressed to the People of the Book it would be ilaykum and rabikum, i.e. in the arabic plural as are the words in the beginning of the verse when it is addressed to the people of the book.

Muhammad then says that this revelation increases the People of the Book's obstinate rebellion and blasphemy.

The Qur'an is the revelation referred to here.

Why would Muhammad encourage people to stand fast to a revelation that increased obstinate rebellion and blasphemy?

They were rebellious and blasphemous because they didn't follow the Qur'an. He asks them to follow the Qur'an but instead, the more he preaches to them, the more they turn away in rebellion.

Last question: "It is the revelation that cometh to thee from thy Lord (People of the Book referenced to in the first person--Muhammad is speaking directly to them), that increaseth in most of them their (People of the Book referenced in the third person)obstinate rebellion and blasphemy."

From the previous comment it is clear why your grammatical analysis is wrong. It is God speaking here, not Prophet Muhammad. Take another look:

Say [O Muhammad]: "O People of the Book! You [People of the Book] have no ground to stand upon unless you [People of the Book] stand fast by the Law, the Gospel, and all the revelation that has come to you [People of the Book] from your [People of the Book] Lord."

It is the revelation that cometh to thee [Muhammad] from thy [Muhammad] Lord, that increaseth in most of them [People of the Book] their obstinate rebellion and blasphemy. But sorrow thou [Muhammad] not over (these) people without Faith.

Regards

 

[POBook]

Greetings Ansar Al-'Adl,

Thanks for your reply. I'm not too clear on your explanation concerning the following:

Quote:
What did Muhammad mean by "no ground to stand upon upon unless ye stand fast by the Law, the Gospel, and all the revelation that has come to you from your Lord"?

It meant that everyone should adhere to the revelations once they recieve them. So the Jews deviated when they stopped following the Tawrah and the Christians when they stopped following the Injeel - what is incumbent upon everyone now is to follow the final revelation, the Holy Qur'an.

1. If the Jews had their Tawrah and the Christians had their Injeel, and these two groups of people had deviated from their Scriptures, was Muhammad not encouraging them to base their whole lives--everything they thought, said, and did--upon what they already had--their Law, their Gospel, and their Revelation?
2. Where in this verse does Muhammad tell the Jews and the Christians to follow the Holy Qur'an?

The Prophet Muhammad pbuh commands them to establish the Tawra and the Injeel - that which was originally revealed to them - and the only way for them to recognize what is truly from the Tawra and the Injeel amongst the scriptures they possesed, was for them to use the Qur'an as a criterion and follow Prophet Muhammad pbuh. In doing this, they would have established the Tawra and the Injeel.

1. Where in this verse does Muhammad command Jews and Christians to "establish" the Tawra and the Injeel? To establish something is to implement it, work on it and bring it to conclusion. From what Muhammad said in this verse, he was telling the Jews and Christians to establish their lives on the Scriptures they already had, not establish new Scriptures.
2. Was the Qur'an as it is today available to everyone back in the time when Muhammad was still receiving his revelations?

Again---sincerely and thanks for your feedback

 

[Ansar Al-'Adl]

If the Jews had their Tawrah and the Christians had their Injeel, and these two groups of people had deviated from their Scriptures, was Muhammad not encouraging them to base their whole lives--everything they thought, said, and did--upon what they already had--their Law, their Gospel, and their Revelation?

The Prophet Muhammad pbuh was pointing out that the Jews and Christians had deviated from their scriptures and that the only way for them to return to the original message of the scriptures, thus 'establishing' themselves upon it, would be to follow the Qur'an.

Where in this verse does Muhammad tell the Jews and the Christians to follow the Holy Qur'an?

"and what has (now) been sent down to you from your Lord (the Qur'ân)."

Where in this verse does Muhammad command Jews and Christians to "establish" the Tawra and the Injeel? To establish something is to implement it, work on it and bring it to conclusion. From what Muhammad said in this verse, he was telling the Jews and Christians to establish their lives on the Scriptures they already had, not establish new Scriptures.

I'm sure you understand that the Qur'an is in arabic, not english. The word is tuqeemu which means that they should return to the original messages of their scriptures and the only way for them to do that was to use the Qur'an as a criterion.

Was the Qur'an as it is today available to everyone back in the time when Muhammad was still receiving his revelations?

The process of revelation continued until shortly before Prophet Muhammad pbuh's death.

Regards

 

[POBook]

Greetings Ansar Al-'Adl,

Thanks again for your response . The following verse is the one under consideration.

Say: "O People of the Book! ye have no ground to stand upon unless ye stand fast by the Law, the Gospel, and all the revelation that has come to you from your Lord." It is the revelation that cometh to thee from thy Lord, that increaseth in most of them their obstinate rebellion and blasphemy. But sorrow thou not over (these) people without Faith."

Quote:
Was the Qur'an as it is today available to everyone back in the time when Muhammad was still receiving his revelations?

The process of revelation continued until shortly before Prophet Muhammad pbuh's death.

I understand that the process of revelation continued until shortly before Prophet Muhammad's death. However, the Qur'an as we have it today only came into existence some time after Prophet Muhammad's death. So how could he tell Jews and Christians during his time to follow the Qur'an? It would have been like an author writing a text book for school kids, telling them to learn from what he is writing--an "unpublished" work that has not even been printed and handed out. When Prophet Muhammad addressed Jews and Christians, he had to have been encouraging them to follow their Scriptures that they had; their Scriptures that had already been established many years before and Scriptures they had chosen not to follow. He could not have been encouraging them to follow a scripture that had not yet been completed.

Again, sincerely and with thanks for your dialogue

PS, I will respond to John 1:1 in the Atonement forum

 

[Ansar Al-'Adl]

I understand that the process of revelation continued until shortly before Prophet Muhammad's death. However, the Qur'an as we have it today only came into existence some time after Prophet Muhammad's death.

This is not true at all. The Qur'an was not a book that Muhammad was working on like an atuhor; it was a continuous revelation that was preached, memorized and implemented by his followers in thei daily lives.

As the Muslims were already following the Qur'an, there was no reason why the Prophet Muhammad pbuh would not invite the Jews and Christians to do likewise and that is what happened. Prophet Muhammad pbuh did not wait until the completion of the revelation before he went out and began preaching. By the time the revelation was complete, he already had thousands of followers.

Regards

 

[M H Kahn]

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Do you, O Believers, still hope that they (people of the Book) will believe in what you say, when some of them have already heard the word of Allah and perverted it knowingly after they understood it?[2:75]

When they meet the believers (Muslims) they say: "We too are believers," but when they (people of the Book) meet each other in private, they say: "Would you disclose to the believers (Muslims) what Allah has revealed to you? So that they (Muslims) may use it as an argument against you in the court of your Rabb? Have you no sense?"[2:76]

Do they not really know that Allah knows what they conceal and what they reveal?[2:77]

Among them there are some illiterates who do not know their Holy Book; they follow their own desires and do nothing but conjecture.[2:78]

Woe to those who write the Book with their own hands and then say: "This is from Allah," so that they may sell it for a petty price! Woe to them for what their hands have written and woe to them for what they have earned.[2:79]
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Now when there has come to them a Book from Allah confirming the Holy Books of Torah and Gospel which they already have - even though before this they used to pray for victory against the unbelievers - when there came to them that which they very well recognize, they knowingly rejected it; Allah’s curse is on such disbelievers.[2:89]

Ridiculous is the price for which they have sold away their souls, that they deny Allah’s revelation merely because of their grudge, that Allah should send His grace only (on an Israelite rather than) on whom He pleases from His servants (Muhammad)! They have drawn on themselves wrath upon wrath, and for such disbelievers there is a disgraceful punishment.[2:90]
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[M H Kahn]

All that is in the heavens and earth declares the glory of Allah, the King, the Holy, the Mighty, the Wise. It is He Who has raised among the unlettered people a Rasool of their own, who recites to them His revelations, purifies them, and teaches them the Book and Wisdom, though prior to this they were in gross error, he is also sent for others of them who have not yet joined them (become Muslims). He is the Mighty, the Wise.That is the grace of Allah, which He bestows on whom He pleases. Allah is the Lord of mighty grace. [Surah 62:1-4]

 

[M H Kahn]

Has Allah revealed truth in the Gospel?

See what Allah says in the Quran: "Say: "Shall I seek for judge other than God? - when He it is Who hath sent unto you the Book, explained in detail." They know full well, to whom We have given the Book, that it hath been sent down from thy Lord in truth. Never be then of those who doubt.The word of thy Lord doth find its fulfilment in truth and in justice: None can change His words: for He is the one who heareth and knoweth all.

 

[M H Kahn]

Greetings Ansar Al-'Adl,

Thanks again for your response . The following verse is the one under consideration.


I understand that the process of revelation continued until shortly before Prophet Muhammad's death. However, the Qur'an as we have it today only came into existence some time after Prophet Muhammad's death. So how could he tell Jews and Christians during his time to follow the Qur'an? It would have been like an author writing a text book for school kids, telling them to learn from what he is writing--an "unpublished" work that has not even been printed and handed out. When Prophet Muhammad addressed Jews and Christians, he had to have been encouraging them to follow their Scriptures that they had; their Scriptures that had already been established many years before and Scriptures they had chosen not to follow. He could not have been encouraging them to follow a scripture that had not yet been completed.

Again, sincerely and with thanks for your dialogue

PS, I will respond to John 1:1 in the Atonement forum

Why mankind should be guided by the Quran
and guidelines given by Muhammed(Sm):

The verses of the holy Quran were learnt by heart by Muhammed (pbuh) and his followers as soon as the same were revealed. They were at the same preserved in writing, though not in the form of a complete book as it is available today. But the revelations were to be complied with at once as they were revealed. So it is very evident when Muhammed (pbuh) addressed Jews, Christians as well as others, he called them all to follow the verses of the Quran that had already been revealed to him.
The earlier divine books, which are not available now in unchanged form, also contained the same basic principle, as enunciated in the holy Quran, that God (in Arabic language, Allah) is the sole Creator and Sustainer of everything in the universe and none but He should be worshipped and no partner should be associated with Him in His worship. But probably from time to time the nature and scope of various worships changed with advent of new prophets, and it was always obligatory on the mankind of all times to believe in all prophets, not to differentiate among them with respect to their status with Allah, and to abide by the divine law encoded in the latest book of Divine Law brought to them by the latest prophet up to their time. As Quran is the latest divine book of law revealed to Muhammed (pbuh), the last of the prophets, after whom no further prophet will be sent by Allah, it is obligatory for all the humans on the earth, living from the time of Muhammed (pbuh) till the day of destruction, to live up to the law encoded in the Quran and guidelines given by Muhammed (pbuh).
As a human, living according to the Quran and the guidelines of Muhammed (pbuh), cannot be a submitter (in Arabic language, Muslim) if he has any doubt or disrespect about earlier prophets and the divine books revealed to them, so also a human living on the earth from the time of Muhammed (pbuh) cannot be a submitter or Muslim until he has believed in the Quran and the prophet Muhammed (pbuh) and lived accordingly.

 

[POBook]

Hello M H Kahn and Ansar Al-'Adl,

Thanks for your responses. I will certainly respond to your message s as well. I appreciate you taking the time to participate in this dialogue !

Sincerely,

 

[POBook]

Hello Ansar Al-‘Adl,

“The Qur'an was not a book that Muhammad was working on like an author”

Does this mean that after Muhammad’s very first revelation he received, the Qur’an came into existence? In other words, was Al-‘Alaq (Sura 96) considered to be the Qur’an?

“As the Muslims were already following the Qur'an, there was no reason why the Prophet Muhammad pbuh would not invite the Jews and Christians to do likewise and that is what happened.”

I’m just not sure how this fits in with, "O People of the Book! ye have no ground to stand upon unless ye stand fast by the Law, the Gospel, and all the revelation that has come to you from your Lord."

• First, if Muhammad meant what you are suggesting, would he not have encouraged the Christians and Jews to stand fast upon the Qur’an? Why encourage them to stand fast by their Law and their Gospel from “their” Lord?
• Second, to make reference to the Christian’s and Jew’s Lord as “your Lord” is to distinguish between their Lord and Muhammad’s Lord.
• Third, if this Law and Gospel was no longer around, how could Muhammad encourage them to stand fast to it? Surely if Muhammad had in mind for these Jews and Christians to stand fast to the Qur’an, he would not have encouraged them to stand fast to their Law and their Gospel?

Sincerely,

 

[POBook]

Greetings M H Kahn,

Regarding your response # 27:

Now when there has come to them a Book from Allah confirming the Holy Books of Torah and Gospel which they already have - even though before this they used to pray for victory against the unbelievers - when there came to them that which they very well recognize, they knowingly rejected it; Allah’s curse is on such disbelievers.[2:89]

Ridiculous is the price for which they have sold away their souls, that they deny Allah’s revelation merely because of their grudge, that Allah should send His grace only (on an Israelite rather than) on whom He pleases from His servants (Muhammad)! They have drawn on themselves wrath upon wrath, and for such disbelievers there is a disgraceful punishment.[2:90]

How does Allah's Mercy fit in with Allah's curse and Allah's punishment?

You quoted Sura 2:75-79. I also want to add the following Sura:

Al-Qur'an, 4.157 (An-Nisa [Women])
"That they said (in boast), "We killed Christ Jesus the son of Mary, the Messenger of Allah";- but they killed him not, nor crucified him, but so it was made to appear to them, and those who differ therein are full of doubts, with no (certain) knowledge, but only conjecture to follow, for of a surety they killed him not:-"

This Sura makes reference to the People of the Book claiming that they had killed Christ Jesus. I would like to point out that these "People of the Book" in this context, were certainly not true followers of Jesus. True followers of Jesus have no pride in His death. These people who boasted in the death of Jesus were the Jewish religious leaders--Pharisees, Sadducees, and priests. I'm not sure what your understanding is of a follower of Jesus, but these People of the Book in this context as well as the verses you quoted, were not followers of Jesus. They were religious killers and opposers of Jesus.

Sincerely,

 

[POBook]

Hello again M H Kahn,

"He is the Mighty, the Wise.That is the grace of Allah, which He bestows on whom He pleases. Allah is the Lord of mighty grace. [Surah 62:1-4]"

If Allah is the Lord of mighty grace; if He bestows grace on whom He pleases, who is to say that he will not bestow grace on the People of the Book whom he also says will get disgraceful punishment and be cursed? How do you put disgraceful punishment and grace together?

Sincerely,

 

[POBook]

Hello again, again M H Kahn,

"The word of thy Lord doth find its fulfilment in truth and in justice: None can change His words: for He is the one who heareth and knoweth all."

The Law and the Gospel are the words of Allah. If no one can change the words of Allah, why do people believe the Law and the Gospel have been changed and corrupted?

Sincerely,

 

[POBook]

Hello again, again, again M H Kahn

The verses of the holy Quran were learnt by heart by Muhammed (pbuh) and his followers as soon as the same were revealed. They were at the same preserved in writing, though not in the form of a complete book as it is available today. But the revelations were to be complied with at once as they were revealed. So it is very evident when Muhammed (pbuh) addressed Jews, Christians as well as others, he called them all to follow the verses of the Quran that had already been revealed to him.

Thank you for this clear explanation. I better understand what is considered to be the "revelations" of what is now the "Qur'an".

The earlier divine books, which are not available now in unchanged form,

1. What are these earlier divine books?
2. By divine, I assume you mean that God was the ultimate Author of these books. Would God allow people to change His books?

As Quran is the latest divine book of law revealed to Muhammed (pbuh), the last of the prophets, after whom no further prophet will be sent by Allah, it is obligatory for all the humans on the earth, living from the time of Muhammed (pbuh) till the day of destruction, to live up to the law encoded in the Quran and guidelines given by Muhammed (pbuh).

If this is the case, why did Muhammad encourage Christians and Jews to stand fast to their Law and their Gospel that was given to them by their Lord? Why did he not simply say, "I am a new prophet with new revelations. You are right in not standing fast to your Law and your Gospel, because now you have a new law and a new gospel and you must now stand fast to these new revelations"?

Again, thanks for your time and participation in this dialogue

Sincerely

 

[M H Kahn]

Questions:
What are these earlier divine books?
By divine, I assume you mean that God was the ultimate Author of these books. Would God allow people to change His books?

Attempted Answer:
The Creator has periodically chosen human beings to reveal His messages to humankind. Indeed, the Qur'an refers to many prophets such as Abraham, Noah, David, Isaac, Jacob, Moses, and Jesus (peace be upon them all). These messages and revelations ended with Muhammed being the last of the prophets. The Qur'an refers to Islam as the religion of Abraham, Jacob, Moses, Jesus, and other prophets. It is, in most part, repeatation of the earlier divine messages through Prophet Muhammad.

Allah says:
Say, Oh Muslims, we believe in Alllah and that which is revealed unto Abraham and Isma'il and Isaac and Jacob and the tribes and that which Moses and Jesus received and that which the Prophet received from the Lord. We make no distinction between any of them and unto them we have surrendered. (We are Muslims.)

So, definitely earlier divine books are Jabur Taurat, Engil and many other small books revealed to other prophets.

I think in the Quranic revealation, "The word of thy Lord doth find its fulfilment in truth and in justice: None can change His words: for He is the one who heareth and knoweth all," it has been meant that none is authorized to change or misinterpret the language of the revealations. Again, "None can change His words" does not mean that with lapse of time a divine book cannot be corrupted by human hands. The earlier divine books revealed to earlier prophets were not recorded instantly in a book form, as happened in case of the Quran, at the time of revealations; those books were written subsequently in indirect speeches from memory of the prophet's compaions and thus, I think, the revealations of God got corrupted intentionally or unintentionally by the writers.

You will be astonished to learn that though for the reason of technological advancement, the Quran, which contains not a single word other than the direct speeches of God, are often misinterpreted by many of so-called Muslim scholars for earning money and fame. They have invented saleable prayers, saleable recitation of the Quran, saleable milad, saleable dhikir and so on.They have invented amulets and talisman commonly called taweez as false cure for diseases. Most of them associate Muhammed (pbuh) as a partner with Allah in prayer. Thus in worshipping Muhammed (pbuh)they refuse to obey the own teachings of the prophet who has taught the people not ot associate any partner with Allah.

While all divine revealations from Adam(pbuh) to Muhammed (pbuh) and all the prophets have taught the residents of the planet Earth to worship none but Allah alone, a vast majority of the present day Muslims have already gone astray ! They have started worshipping graves, fake saints, prophet Muhammed (pbuh) and so on. There are many corrupted Muslims who disregard the Quranic revealation that all prophets were humans. So you will find many of the the people identied as Muslims are in fact mushrikins; they are wolves donned in Islamic garments. Also note that there is no priesthood in Islam. Despite this in the ambience of ignorance, a priest class called Mullahs has cropped up.

 

[Ansar Al-'Adl]

Does this mean that after Muhammad’s very first revelation he received, the Qur’an came into existence?

It seems you are not very familiar with the Qur'an or life of the Prophet Muhammad pbuh. The Qur'an was revealed and implemented in their lives gradually. There was no point when the Qur'an was "published". As revelation came down it was immediately preached, memorized, recorded and implemented.

You previously used the example of an author writing a textbook for schoolkids. Please allow me to give you a more appropriate analogy.

Suppose there is a teacher who is teaching his students mathematics. He will teach them the lessons gradually and give them one lesson per day. Can the students object and say, "How can we follow what you are teaching when you have not give us the complete set of lessons for the entire course?" Obviously not.​

According to your ideas, the Qur'an should not have asked anyone to follow it until it was completely revealed. Yet this is clearly not the case. The Qur'an contains hundreds of verses telling believers to obey its commandments.

In other words, was Al-‘Alaq (Sura 96) considered to be the Qur’an?

The first verses of Al-Alaq were the first verses revealed. How you can conclude from that that Al-Alaq is the entire Qur'an is beyond me.

First, if Muhammad meant what you are suggesting, would he not have encouraged the Christians and Jews to stand fast upon the Qur’an?

He did.

5:15 O people of the Book! There hath come to you our Messenger, revealing to you much that ye used to hide in the Book, and passing over much. Indeed, there has come to you from Allâh a light (Prophet Muhammad) and a plain Book (this Qur'ân).

3:98 Say: "O People of the Book! Why reject ye the Ayât of Allah, when Allah is Himself witness to all ye do?"

98:6 Those who disbelieve among the People of the Book and among the Polytheists, will be in Hell-Fire, to dwell therein. They are the worst of creatures.

As for the verse you are referring to, I already pointed out that the Porphet Muhammad pbuh explained to them that if they accepted the Qur'an ("what has now been revealed to you") they would be fullfilling the requirements of the revelations originally sent to them.

Second, to make reference to the Christian’s and Jew’s Lord as “your Lord” is to distinguish between their Lord and Muhammad’s Lord.

Not at all. As a matter of fact, the Prophet Muhammad pbuh was pointing out that the Qur'an was from the same Lord who sent the previous revelations. If one reads the Qur'an completely and not selectively, they will see that in another place, the Prophet Muhammad pbuh tells the People of the Book:
42:15 Allâh is our Lord and your Lord.

Third, if this Law and Gospel was no longer around, how could Muhammad encourage them to stand fast to it?

I just answered the exact same question in my previous post. The Prophet Muhammad pbuh asked the People of the Book to tuqeemu (establish) the Injeel and Tawra and the only way for them to do that was to accept the Qur'an as a criterion as the Prophet Muhammad pbuh pointed out.

Regards

 

[M H Kahn]

Greetings M H Kahn,

Regarding your response # 27:



How does Allah's Mercy fit in with Allah's curse and Allah's punishment?

You quoted Sura 2:75-79. I also want to add the following Sura:

Al-Qur'an, 4.157 (An-Nisa [Women])
"That they said (in boast), "We killed Christ Jesus the son of Mary, the Messenger of Allah";- but they killed him not, nor crucified him, but so it was made to appear to them, and those who differ therein are full of doubts, with no (certain) knowledge, but only conjecture to follow, for of a surety they killed him not:-"

This Sura makes reference to the People of the Book claiming that they had killed Christ Jesus. I would like to point out that these "People of the Book" in this context, were certainly not true followers of Jesus. True followers of Jesus have no pride in His death. These people who boasted in the death of Jesus were the Jewish religious leaders--Pharisees, Sadducees, and priests. I'm not sure what your understanding is of a follower of Jesus, but these People of the Book in this context as well as the verses you quoted, were not followers of Jesus. They were religious killers and opposers of Jesus.

Sincerely,

As declared repeatedly in the Quran, Allah is oft-merciful to the believers when they sincerely repent after they have committed any acts of sins. But for those who refuse to believe and obey, Allah will punish them.

 

[POBook]

Greetings M H Kahn,

Thank you for your response (#37). I must say that I found parts of your response so very, very interesting, especially your description of what you called “mushrikins…wolves donned in Islamic garments.” I hope you don’t mind me quoting you a verse of Scripture concerning what Jesus said about the Pharisees in His day:

“Beware of false prophets who come to you in sheep's clothing but inwardly are ravaging wolves” (Matthew 7:15).​

You mentioned how many “so-called Muslim scholars” earn their money through deception, worship Muhammad, and have gone astray. Again, this situation is so much like the Pharisees—the religious leaders of Jesus’ day. I could quote the whole of Matthew 23, but if you have access to a Bible, read this chapter—I really think you will appreciate it.

Again, I appreciate your explanation of the verse containing the words, “None can change His words.” I also understand that Muslims believe the Bible is corrupted and has been changed. But I am a firm believer that the Bible has not been corrupted and changed, and we have much historical evidence to prove that. The gospels as we have them today, are exactly the same as the oldest manuscripts we have—manuscripts that were written 300-400 years before Muhammad was even born. The scrolls of the Torah that were discovered in the caves of Qumran, proved that Scripture was accurately copied over hundreds of years. I know I keep saying this, but if Muhammad encouraged Jews and Christians to conform their lives to the Law and the Gospels, Muhammad must have understood that in his time, the Law and the Gospels were in tact and had not been corrupted.

Again, I appreciate your dialogue…thanks !