Re: How come there no gender equality in Islam?
Intersting stance.
Well you see this is why it would be logically needed for us to understand under which presumptions we are working.
You claim that everyone would be naturally inclined to everything in God's law, whilst that might be acceptable for someone who does not hold the view that there is any evil entity, it is totally illogical for anyone who holds the view that there is.
We both know society sculps and shapes everyone, so whilst homosexuality was totally againt morality of the public many decades back, it is not more accepted, so according to your logic Judaism Christianity and Islam, might have been acceptable at a time where everyone agreed homosexality was wrong but now where society is opposite that then the religions are wrong.
Which would mean that God's word would be suseptible to acceptance only if the society which was prevalent was in accordance with it. Which is the most Illogical theory ever.
Edit: then again I wont expect an answer anyhow since you seem to hand pick posts which will only send you in circles.
Eesa
I didn't read your entirely. Whatever I read, I don't think it's worth responding as my point should very clear.
Intersting stance.
You only agree with me that God's word would work universally. But the difference is that you believe in forcing what you believe to be God's word universally and what I am saying is that God's word would naturally work universally. Nobody would ever need to force God's word anywhere. God's word would naturally make sense universally. Since polygamy doesn't universally make sense, it can't be considered God's word.
Well you see this is why it would be logically needed for us to understand under which presumptions we are working.
You claim that everyone would be naturally inclined to everything in God's law, whilst that might be acceptable for someone who does not hold the view that there is any evil entity, it is totally illogical for anyone who holds the view that there is.
We both know society sculps and shapes everyone, so whilst homosexuality was totally againt morality of the public many decades back, it is not more accepted, so according to your logic Judaism Christianity and Islam, might have been acceptable at a time where everyone agreed homosexality was wrong but now where society is opposite that then the religions are wrong.
Which would mean that God's word would be suseptible to acceptance only if the society which was prevalent was in accordance with it. Which is the most Illogical theory ever.
Edit: then again I wont expect an answer anyhow since you seem to hand pick posts which will only send you in circles.
Eesa
